SIA Security Industry Authority Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which pillar of the CONTEST strategy is most relevant to a door supervisor's daily role in protecting crowded places?

Pursue - stopping terrorist attacks through investigation
Protect - strengthening protection against terrorist attacks (Correct answer)
Prepare - mitigating the impact of attacks that cannot be stopped
Prevent - stopping people becoming terrorists

Correct answer: Protect - strengthening protection against terrorist attacks

While all four pillars are important, PROTECT is most directly relevant to a door supervisor's daily duties. This pillar focuses on strengthening protection against attacks, including security at crowded places, border security, and protective security measures. Door supervisors contribute by maintaining vigilance, controlling access, and identifying suspicious behaviour.

Question 2: What is a Designated Premises Supervisor (DPS)?

A police officer assigned to the venue
The named individual who holds day-to-day responsibility for the premises licence (Correct answer)
The head door supervisor
The venue's fire safety officer

Correct answer: The named individual who holds day-to-day responsibility for the premises licence

The DPS must hold a personal licence and is responsible for authorising alcohol sales and managing the premises.

Question 3: A customer who was refused entry has posted a negative review online, mentioning you by name and accusing you of discrimination. What should you do?

Do not respond personally online; report the review to your venue manager, provide a factual written account of the incident, and let the venue handle the response through official channels (Correct answer)
Post your own version of events on your personal social media
Create a fake account and respond aggressively to the review
Contact the customer directly to argue your case

Correct answer: Do not respond personally online; report the review to your venue manager, provide a factual written account of the incident, and let the venue handle the response through official channels

Never respond personally to negative reviews or online complaints. Report the situation to your venue manager with a factual written account of the incident, including any witnesses and CCTV footage if available. The venue should respond through official channels. Personal responses can escalate situations, create legal issues, and damage both your and the venue's reputation. Ensure your incident report is thorough and accurate.

Question 4: What is the significance of using 'I' statements rather than 'you' statements when dealing with a confrontational patron?

There is no difference in effectiveness between the two approaches
'You' statements are more direct and therefore more effective in security situations
'I' statements are legally required under the Private Security Industry Act
'I' statements express the door supervisor's position without blaming or accusing, which reduces defensiveness, whereas 'you' statements can feel accusatory and escalate conflict (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 'I' statements express the door supervisor's position without blaming or accusing, which reduces defensiveness, whereas 'you' statements can feel accusatory and escalate conflict

Using 'I' statements (e.g., 'I need you to lower your voice') rather than 'you' statements (e.g., 'You need to stop shouting') frames the communication as a personal request rather than an accusation. This reduces defensiveness and the perception of being attacked, making cooperation more likely.

Question 5: What is positional asphyxia?

A security formation
A breathing technique for calming people
A type of drug overdose
A condition where body position restricts breathing, potentially fatal during restraint (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A condition where body position restricts breathing, potentially fatal during restraint

Positional asphyxia can occur during face-down restraint and can be fatal. Door supervisors must monitor breathing during any restraint.

Question 6: Which of the following is a common physical sign of cocaine use?

Bloodshot eyes and slow reactions
Excessive yawning and watery eyes
Dilated pupils and frequent sniffing (Correct answer)
Constricted pupils and drowsiness

Correct answer: Dilated pupils and frequent sniffing

Cocaine is a stimulant that causes dilated pupils, increased energy, talkativeness, and frequent sniffing or touching of the nose due to nasal irritation from snorting.

Question 7: What is the maximum prison sentence for possession of a Class A drug in the UK?

7 years (Correct answer)
2 years
5 years
14 years

Correct answer: 7 years

Possession of a Class A drug carries a maximum sentence of 7 years' imprisonment and/or an unlimited fine under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971.

Question 8: When should an Automated External Defibrillator (AED) be used?

On a person who is breathing but has chest pain
On anyone who has fainted
On a person in cardiac arrest who is unresponsive and not breathing normally (Correct answer)
Only by trained medical professionals

Correct answer: On a person in cardiac arrest who is unresponsive and not breathing normally

An AED should be used on a person who is unresponsive and not breathing normally (cardiac arrest). Modern AEDs are designed for use by anyone and will only deliver a shock if an appropriate heart rhythm is detected. They guide the user with voice prompts.

Question 9: What is Project Griffin?

A counter-terrorism awareness initiative delivered by Counter Terrorism Policing to the private security industry and businesses (Correct answer)
A government scheme to install bollards outside nightclubs
A covert MI5 surveillance programme targeting extremists
A Home Office programme to train armed police officers

Correct answer: A counter-terrorism awareness initiative delivered by Counter Terrorism Policing to the private security industry and businesses

Project Griffin is a counter-terrorism awareness initiative run by Counter Terrorism Policing (CTP). It provides training to private security staff and businesses on how to recognise and respond to terrorist threats, including identifying hostile reconnaissance, suspicious items, and what to do during a terrorist attack.

Question 10: How should a door supervisor handle a complaint about another staff member?

Dismiss it — staff always come first
Tell the patron they're wrong
Listen carefully, acknowledge the concern, and escalate to management (Correct answer)
Argue in defence of their colleague

Correct answer: Listen carefully, acknowledge the concern, and escalate to management

Taking complaints seriously and escalating to management shows professionalism and can prevent the situation from escalating into a confrontation.

Question 11: Under the Psychoactive Substances Act 2016, which of the following is an offence?

Producing a psychoactive substance for supply (Correct answer)
Possessing alcohol as a psychoactive substance
Drinking coffee, as caffeine is psychoactive
Simple possession of a psychoactive substance for personal use

Correct answer: Producing a psychoactive substance for supply

The Act makes it an offence to produce, supply, offer to supply, possess with intent to supply, import or export psychoactive substances. Simple possession for personal use is not an offence. Alcohol, tobacco, caffeine, and medicines are exempt.

Question 12: What is the legal concept of 'citizen's arrest' relevant to door supervisors?

Door supervisors can arrest anyone for any reason
Only managers can make citizen's arrests
Citizen's arrest doesn't exist in UK law
Under Section 24A PACE 1984, any person can arrest someone committing an indictable offence if it's not reasonably practicable to wait for police (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Under Section 24A PACE 1984, any person can arrest someone committing an indictable offence if it's not reasonably practicable to wait for police

Section 24A of PACE 1984 allows citizens to arrest for indictable offences, but only when it's not reasonably practicable for police to make the arrest. It must be necessary, not convenient.

Question 13: What is 'excited delirium' and why is it dangerous during restraint?

A medical emergency involving extreme agitation, hyperthermia, and risk of sudden death (Correct answer)
A type of drug commonly found at raves
A happy feeling from too much dancing
Excitement about getting into the venue

Correct answer: A medical emergency involving extreme agitation, hyperthermia, and risk of sudden death

Excited delirium involves extreme agitation, insensitivity to pain, elevated body temperature, and can cause sudden cardiac arrest. Physical restraint increases the danger significantly.

Question 14: What is the 'broken record' technique?

Playing the same song repeatedly to annoy people into leaving
Breaking a vinyl record to create a weapon
Calmly repeating the same clear message without being drawn into arguments (Correct answer)
Recording conversations on a broken device

Correct answer: Calmly repeating the same clear message without being drawn into arguments

The broken record technique involves calmly restating your position ('I understand, but you cannot enter tonight') without engaging in side arguments. It maintains control without escalation.

Question 15: Under what legislation does the right to use reasonable force exist?

The Equality Act 2010
The Health and Safety Act 1974
Section 3 of the Criminal Law Act 1967 (Correct answer)
The SIA Act 2001

Correct answer: Section 3 of the Criminal Law Act 1967

Section 3 of the Criminal Law Act 1967 provides the legal basis for using reasonable force to prevent crime.

Question 16: What is a 'pain compliance' technique and what are its risks?

A way to test if someone is really injured
A relaxation technique for stressed patrons
A technique using pressure on joints/nerves to gain compliance, which can cause injury (Correct answer)
A training exercise for new door staff

Correct answer: A technique using pressure on joints/nerves to gain compliance, which can cause injury

Pain compliance uses pressure on specific points to encourage cooperation. Risks include joint injury, nerve damage, and it may not work on intoxicated individuals who have reduced pain sensitivity.

Question 17: What is the correct procedure if you receive a bomb threat by telephone at your venue?

Keep the caller talking as long as possible, use the bomb threat checklist to gather information, then call 999 (Correct answer)
Record the call on your mobile phone
Put the caller on hold and transfer them to the police
Hang up immediately and call 999

Correct answer: Keep the caller talking as long as possible, use the bomb threat checklist to gather information, then call 999

If you receive a bomb threat call, keep the caller talking for as long as possible. Use the bomb threat checklist card to record key information: exact wording of the threat, when the bomb will go off, where it is, what it looks like, what kind of bomb, who planted it, why, and the caller's details (accent, background noise, manner). Then immediately call 999.

Question 18: What is 'reasonable force' in legal terms?

Any force a door supervisor decides to use
Force that doesn't leave visible marks
The minimum force necessary to achieve a lawful objective (Correct answer)
Force approved by venue management

Correct answer: The minimum force necessary to achieve a lawful objective

Reasonable force is the minimum level necessary. Courts consider what a reasonable person would have done in the same circumstances.

Question 19: What body language sign indicates rising aggression?

Smiling and nodding
Leaning back with arms uncrossed
Clenched fists and fixed staring (Correct answer)
Relaxed shoulders and open palms

Correct answer: Clenched fists and fixed staring

Clenched fists, fixed staring, reddened face, and invading personal space are classic pre-attack indicators.

Question 20: What does 'proportionate force' mean?

Using force only after being attacked
Using maximum force to end a situation quickly
Using only the level of force that matches the threat (Correct answer)
Using the same force type the attacker uses

Correct answer: Using only the level of force that matches the threat

The force must be appropriate and not excessive relative to the threat. Excessive force can result in criminal charges.

Question 21: A door supervisor makes a citizen's arrest at 22:00 and police cannot attend for 30 minutes. What is the correct course of action?

Conduct an interview to gather evidence while waiting for police
Release the person as detention cannot lawfully exceed 15 minutes
Search the person's belongings for further evidence to present to police
Keep the person detained, continue efforts to contact police, and hand over when an officer arrives (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Keep the person detained, continue efforts to contact police, and hand over when an officer arrives

The obligation is to hand the person to police 'as soon as reasonably practicable'; waiting for police availability is acceptable as long as efforts to contact them are maintained.

Question 22: What role does CCTV play in supporting drug-related incidents at licensed premises?

It is optional and rarely helpful
It is only useful for insurance claims
It can only be viewed by the venue owner
It provides crucial evidence for prosecution, supports incident reports, and can be requested by police under licensing conditions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It provides crucial evidence for prosecution, supports incident reports, and can be requested by police under licensing conditions

CCTV is a critical evidential tool. Most premises licences require CCTV to be operational and footage retained for a set period (typically 31 days). Police can request footage, and it supports prosecution of drug offences and corroborates door staff statements.

Question 23: A patron has suffered a serious cut from a broken glass on the dance floor. After providing first aid, what additional actions should the door supervisor take?

Secure the area, ensure all glass fragments are cleared by appropriate staff, complete an incident report, and photograph the injury if the patron consents (Correct answer)
Tell the patron to visit A&E and make a note in the daily log at the end of the shift
Move the patron outside the venue to prevent blood contamination of the dance floor
Clean up the broken glass and resume normal duties immediately

Correct answer: Secure the area, ensure all glass fragments are cleared by appropriate staff, complete an incident report, and photograph the injury if the patron consents

After first aid is administered, the area should be secured to prevent further injuries. All glass fragments must be thoroughly cleared, ideally by designated staff with appropriate equipment. A full incident report should be completed including time, location, nature of injury, first aid given, and witness details. Photographing the injury (with consent) and the scene provides evidence. The patron should be advised to seek medical attention.

Question 24: How many people should ideally be involved in restraining a person?

One — to avoid confusion
At least three — one per limb area plus a team leader to monitor (Correct answer)
As many as possible
It doesn't matter how many

Correct answer: At least three — one per limb area plus a team leader to monitor

A minimum of three people is recommended: one for upper body, one for lower body, and a team leader to monitor breathing and coordinate. This reduces risk of positional asphyxia.

Question 25: Which of the following correctly describes the 'chain of evidence' when handling seized drugs?

Drugs are placed in the safe until the weekly police collection
Drugs are flushed to prevent them being returned to the patron
Drugs are placed in an envelope and given to the venue manager at the end of the shift
Drugs are sealed in a tamper-evident bag, labelled with details, stored securely, and handed only to police with a signed record of transfer (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Drugs are sealed in a tamper-evident bag, labelled with details, stored securely, and handed only to police with a signed record of transfer

Maintaining the chain of evidence requires drugs to be sealed in tamper-evident packaging, clearly labelled, stored securely with limited access, and transferred to police with a documented and signed handover record.

Question 26: During a bag search at a venue entrance, a door supervisor discovers a small quantity of what appears to be an illegal substance. What is the most appropriate immediate action?

Confiscate the substance, place it in an evidence bag, and allow the patron entry after a warning
Deny the patron entry, retain the substance with a written record, and contact the police (Correct answer)
Return the substance to the patron and refuse them entry to the venue
Detain the patron physically and call the police immediately

Correct answer: Deny the patron entry, retain the substance with a written record, and contact the police

The correct procedure is to deny entry, retain the suspected substance (to avoid it being disposed of or passed to someone else), record the details including time, description, and circumstances, and contact the police. Returning drugs would be irresponsible, and physical detention should only be used if a citizen's arrest is justified for an indictable offence.

Question 27: What factor does a court consider when deciding if force was reasonable?

The size difference between the parties
What a reasonable person would have done in the same circumstances with the same knowledge (Correct answer)
Whether the venue has CCTV
Whether the door supervisor has martial arts training

Correct answer: What a reasonable person would have done in the same circumstances with the same knowledge

The 'reasonable person' test asks what someone with the same knowledge and circumstances would have done. Hindsight is not applied — it's based on what you knew at the time.

Question 28: How should a door supervisor handle a situation where a regular customer complains about a new 'no trainers' dress code policy?

Acknowledge their loyalty and frustration, explain the policy applies equally to everyone, empathise with the inconvenience, and suggest they check the venue's social media or website for updated dress code information before future visits (Correct answer)
Make an exception for regular customers
Suggest they speak to the manager and let them argue about it
Tell them the policy has nothing to do with you

Correct answer: Acknowledge their loyalty and frustration, explain the policy applies equally to everyone, empathise with the inconvenience, and suggest they check the venue's social media or website for updated dress code information before future visits

Regular customers may feel entitled to exceptions, but policies must be applied consistently. Acknowledge their loyalty ('We really appreciate you coming here regularly'), empathise with their frustration, explain the policy applies to everyone equally, and offer practical help for next time. This approach maintains the relationship while upholding the policy without favouritism.

Question 29: Under the Criminal Justice Act 1988, which of the following items is it an offence to carry in a public place without good reason or lawful authority?

A folding pocket knife with a 2.5-inch blade
A lock knife with a 4-inch blade carried in a jacket pocket (Correct answer)
A butter knife carried in a packed lunch box
A plastic cutlery set purchased from a supermarket

Correct answer: A lock knife with a 4-inch blade carried in a jacket pocket

Under Section 139 of the Criminal Justice Act 1988, it is an offence to carry a bladed or sharply pointed article in a public place without good reason or lawful authority. A lock knife of any blade length is covered. Folding pocket knives with blades of 3 inches or less are exempt, and everyday items like butter knives or plastic cutlery carried with good reason are unlikely to constitute an offence.

Question 30: During a marauding terrorist attack (MTA) at a nearby venue, what is the recommended response guidance for the public and security staff?

RUN, HIDE, TELL (Correct answer)
Evacuate everyone to the street outside
Stay where you are and wait for instructions
Fight the attackers immediately

Correct answer: RUN, HIDE, TELL

The UK's official guidance for a firearms or weapons attack is RUN, HIDE, TELL. RUN: escape if you can, insist others go with you, leave belongings behind. HIDE: if you cannot run, find cover, lock and barricade doors, silence phones. TELL: call 999 when safe, give location, number of attackers, description, and type of weapons.

Question 31: What is the purpose of an emergency 'rendezvous point' (RVP)?

A pre-designated location where emergency services will arrive and be met by a venue representative who can provide information and access (Correct answer)
The assembly point where evacuated patrons gather
A secure room where valuables are stored during emergencies
A place where staff go for their break during an emergency

Correct answer: A pre-designated location where emergency services will arrive and be met by a venue representative who can provide information and access

The RVP is a pre-agreed location where emergency services vehicles will arrive and be met by a designated person from the venue. This person provides critical information about the incident, building layout, access routes, and any hazards. It is different from the public assembly point.

Question 32: Nitrous oxide (laughing gas) is now controlled under which legislation when possessed for inhalation?

Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 as a Class C drug (Correct answer)
Psychoactive Substances Act 2016 only
It remains completely legal
Medicines Act 1968 only

Correct answer: Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 as a Class C drug

Nitrous oxide was reclassified as a Class C drug under the Misuse of Drugs Act 1971 in November 2023, making possession for inhalation illegal with a maximum penalty of 2 years' imprisonment.

Question 33: If a door supervisor suspects a patron's drink has been spiked, what is the correct course of action?

Tell the patron to stop drinking and go home
Ask the patron's friends to look after them
Pour the drink away to prevent further harm
Keep the drink as evidence, ensure the patron's safety, call the police and seek medical help (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Keep the drink as evidence, ensure the patron's safety, call the police and seek medical help

The drink should be preserved as evidence, the patron should be kept safe and not left alone, police should be contacted, and medical assistance sought if needed. Pouring the drink away destroys vital evidence.

Question 34: What is the role of the licensing authority?

The local authority responsible for granting, reviewing, and enforcing premises licences (Correct answer)
To sell alcohol licences
The police department that monitors pubs
A private company that manages door supervisors

Correct answer: The local authority responsible for granting, reviewing, and enforcing premises licences

The local council's licensing committee makes decisions on licence applications, reviews, and variations based on the four licensing objectives.

Question 35: GHB (gamma-hydroxybutyrate) is commonly associated with which type of crime in licensed premises?

Drink spiking and sexual assault (Correct answer)
Criminal damage
Fraud and counterfeiting
Theft and pickpocketing

Correct answer: Drink spiking and sexual assault

GHB is commonly used as a 'date rape drug' because it is colourless, odourless, and can cause sedation and memory loss when added to drinks. Door supervisors must be vigilant for signs of drink spiking.

Question 36: When should physical intervention be terminated?

Only when police arrive
When the head doorman says so
As soon as the threat has been neutralised or the person has been safely removed (Correct answer)
After exactly 5 minutes

Correct answer: As soon as the threat has been neutralised or the person has been safely removed

Continuing to use force after the threat has ended or the objective has been achieved makes the force unreasonable and potentially unlawful.

Question 37: During an incident at your venue, a journalist arrives and starts asking questions and filming. What should you do?

Block their camera and tell them to leave immediately
Give them a full account of what happened to get good publicity for the venue
Politely decline to comment, direct them to the venue manager or designated press contact, and ensure they do not compromise the scene or customers' privacy (Correct answer)
Ignore them and continue with your duties

Correct answer: Politely decline to comment, direct them to the venue manager or designated press contact, and ensure they do not compromise the scene or customers' privacy

Door supervisors should never speak to the media on behalf of the venue. Politely explain that you are not authorised to comment and direct them to the venue manager or designated press contact. Ensure they are not filming casualties, customers who do not wish to be filmed, or compromising any evidence. Remain professional and courteous throughout the interaction.

Question 38: What is the purpose of a fire risk assessment?

To test the fire alarm quarterly
To determine the cheapest fire extinguishers
To identify fire hazards, people at risk, evaluate and reduce risks, and plan emergency procedures (Correct answer)
To check if the venue needs fire insurance

Correct answer: To identify fire hazards, people at risk, evaluate and reduce risks, and plan emergency procedures

Under the Regulatory Reform (Fire Safety) Order 2005, the responsible person must carry out and regularly review a fire risk assessment.

Question 39: What should you check before applying a standing restraint?

That your shift is nearly over
That the patron's friends have left
That CCTV is working
That the area is clear of hazards and you have an exit route (Correct answer)

Correct answer: That the area is clear of hazards and you have an exit route

Environmental awareness is essential. Check for trip hazards, sharp objects, stairs, and ensure you have a clear path to safely move the person if needed.

Question 40: What is RIDDOR?

Complaint system
Fire extinguisher type
Legal requirement to report certain workplace accidents and dangerous occurrences (Correct answer)
Radio protocol

Correct answer: Legal requirement to report certain workplace accidents and dangerous occurrences

RIDDOR requires reporting specified incidents to the HSE including major injuries, over-7-day incapacitation, and dangerous occurrences.

Question 41: A door supervisor finds used needles in the venue toilets. What is the MOST important immediate action?

Pick them up wearing thick gloves and dispose of them in a sealed container
Leave them and pretend they weren't seen
Cordon off the area to prevent needlestick injuries, do not touch the needles, and call for proper disposal by trained personnel (Correct answer)
Sweep them into a dustpan and place in a sharps bin

Correct answer: Cordon off the area to prevent needlestick injuries, do not touch the needles, and call for proper disposal by trained personnel

Used needles pose a serious risk of bloodborne infections including HIV and hepatitis. The area should be cordoned off immediately, needles should not be touched, and trained personnel or environmental health should handle disposal using proper sharps containers.

Question 42: What is the minimum standard of recording after a use of force incident?

Full written account including who, what, when, where, why, how, witnesses, and any injuries (Correct answer)
A quick note on your phone
Just the patron's name
No recording is necessary

Correct answer: Full written account including who, what, when, where, why, how, witnesses, and any injuries

A thorough written account protects you legally. Include: date, time, location, people involved, what happened, why force was used, what techniques, duration, injuries, witnesses, and aftermath.

Question 43: Why is it important for door supervisors to attend pre-event briefings with event organisers?

Briefings are optional and only for senior security staff
To understand the event profile, expected attendance, specific risks, VIP arrangements, entry policies, and emergency procedures so they can provide effective security and customer service (Correct answer)
To negotiate a higher pay rate for the event
To meet the event promoter and build personal contacts

Correct answer: To understand the event profile, expected attendance, specific risks, VIP arrangements, entry policies, and emergency procedures so they can provide effective security and customer service

Pre-event briefings are essential for effective security and customer service. They cover the event profile, expected crowd demographics, specific risks or intelligence, VIP arrangements, guest list procedures, entry and search policies, capacity limits, emergency procedures, and communication protocols. Door supervisors who are well-briefed can anticipate issues and provide a much better customer experience.

SIA Security Industry Authority Exam

The SIA (Security Industry Authority) licence-linked exam covers conflict management, physical intervention, legal powers and responsibilities, and counter terrorism awareness for UK security professionals.

Questions

75 min

Time Limit

74%

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