SCS Infection Control & Prevention 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: An athlete presents with a pustular skin lesion that cultures positive for MRSA. Which antibiotic class is typically first-line for outpatient treatment of uncomplicated MRSA skin infections?
- Beta-lactams
- Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Correct answer)
- Macrolides
- Fluoroquinolones
Correct answer: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a first-line oral antibiotic for uncomplicated community-associated MRSA skin and soft tissue infections.
Question 2: Which disinfectant concentration of isopropyl alcohol is most effective for skin antisepsis before injection or blood draw procedures on athletes?
- 50%
- 70% (Correct answer)
- 95%
- 100%
Correct answer: 70%
70% isopropyl alcohol is most effective for antisepsis because the water content slows evaporation, allowing greater contact time and protein denaturation of microorganisms.
Question 3: A wrestling team has three athletes with tinea corporis gladiatorum. What is the MOST appropriate return-to-sport criterion?
- Completion of 72 hours of antifungal therapy with lesions covered (Correct answer)
- Lesions must be fully healed with no antifungal therapy required
- 48 hours of systemic antifungal treatment regardless of lesion appearance
- Negative fungal culture from lesion site
Correct answer: Completion of 72 hours of antifungal therapy with lesions covered
NCAA and NATA guidelines require at least 72 hours of topical or systemic antifungal treatment before return, with active lesions covered during competition.
Question 4: In the context of bloodborne pathogen exposure, what is the recommended window period for baseline HIV testing after a needlestick injury?
- Immediately at time of exposure (Correct answer)
- Within 72 hours
- At 6 weeks post-exposure
- At 6 months post-exposure
Correct answer: Immediately at time of exposure
Baseline HIV testing should be performed as soon as possible at the time of exposure to establish the exposed person's HIV status prior to potential transmission.
Question 5: Which hepatitis virus is transmitted via the fecal-oral route and poses the greatest risk in shared food/water environments at athletic events?
- Hepatitis A (Correct answer)
- Hepatitis B
- Hepatitis C
- Hepatitis D
Correct answer: Hepatitis A
Hepatitis A is transmitted via the fecal-oral route and can spread through contaminated food or water at shared athletic dining facilities or travel events.
Question 6: A sports medicine clinician uses a laryngoscope blade during airway management. Per Spaulding classification, this instrument requires which level of decontamination?
- Low-level disinfection
- Intermediate-level disinfection
- High-level disinfection (Correct answer)
- Sterilization
Correct answer: High-level disinfection
Laryngoscope blades contact mucous membranes and are classified as semi-critical items requiring high-level disinfection (or sterilization if feasible) per the Spaulding classification.
Question 7: What is the primary purpose of performing a risk assessment before implementing isolation precautions for an athlete with suspected infectious disease?
- To determine the appropriate antibiotic regimen
- To identify the transmission route and guide precaution selection (Correct answer)
- To estimate the athlete's return-to-play timeline
- To document the incident for liability purposes
Correct answer: To identify the transmission route and guide precaution selection
Risk assessment identifies how a pathogen is transmitted (contact, droplet, airborne) so that the appropriate type of isolation precautions can be selected and implemented.
SCS Infection Control & Prevention 2
An athlete presents with a pustular skin lesion that cultures positive for MRSA.
Which antibiotic class is typically first-line for outpatient treatment of uncomplicated MRSA skin infections?