SCMA SCMA Basic 3 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A patient refuses a recommended procedure after the physician has explained the risks and benefits. The medical assistant should:
- Administer the procedure anyway per physician orders
- Document the refusal and have the patient sign a refusal form (Correct answer)
- Call 911 to report the patient's non-compliance
- Discharge the patient from the practice immediately
Correct answer: Document the refusal and have the patient sign a refusal form
Patients have the right to refuse treatment; the refusal must be documented and the patient should sign an informed refusal form to protect both parties legally.
Question 2: Which of the following would be classified as a CLIA-waived test?
- Complete blood count (CBC) with differential
- Blood culture and sensitivity
- Urine dipstick urinalysis (Correct answer)
- Prothrombin time (PT/INR)
Correct answer: Urine dipstick urinalysis
Urine dipstick urinalysis is on the CLIA-waived test list because it is simple, poses minimal risk of error, and requires minimal training to perform.
Question 3: When documenting a patient's medication allergy, the medical assistant should record:
- The medication name only
- The medication name and the type of reaction experienced (Correct answer)
- The medication name and the prescribing physician
- The medication name and date of last dose
Correct answer: The medication name and the type of reaction experienced
Complete allergy documentation requires both the medication name and the specific reaction (e.g., rash, anaphylaxis) to guide future clinical decisions.
Question 4: The normal adult respiratory rate range is:
- 8–12 breaths per minute
- 12–20 breaths per minute (Correct answer)
- 20–28 breaths per minute
- 28–36 breaths per minute
Correct answer: 12–20 breaths per minute
The normal resting respiratory rate for adults is 12 to 20 breaths per minute; rates outside this range indicate bradypnea or tachypnea.
Question 5: Which body position is appropriate for a patient experiencing hypotension and near-syncope?
- High Fowler's (90 degrees)
- Prone position
- Supine with legs elevated (Trendelenburg) (Correct answer)
- Lateral recumbent (Sims' position)
Correct answer: Supine with legs elevated (Trendelenburg)
Elevating the legs in the supine position increases venous return to the heart, helping to raise blood pressure in a hypotensive patient.
Question 6: An advance directive that designates another person to make healthcare decisions on a patient's behalf is called a:
- Living will
- Do-not-resuscitate order
- Durable power of attorney for healthcare (Correct answer)
- POLST form
Correct answer: Durable power of attorney for healthcare
A durable power of attorney for healthcare designates a healthcare proxy to make medical decisions when the patient is unable to do so.
Question 7: Which of the following is an example of an OSHA bloodborne pathogen standard requirement?
- Annual TB skin testing for all staff
- Offering hepatitis B vaccination to exposed employees at no cost (Correct answer)
- Requiring staff to wear N95 masks at all times
- Mandatory influenza vaccination for clinical staff
Correct answer: Offering hepatitis B vaccination to exposed employees at no cost
OSHA's Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires employers to offer hepatitis B vaccination to employees with occupational exposure at no cost to the employee.
A patient refuses a recommended procedure after the physician has explained the risks and benefits.
The medical assistant should: