SC-200 Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield SC-200 facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is the primary purpose of Attack Surface Reduction (ASR) rules in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint? → To block behaviors commonly used by malware before malicious activity occurs
2. When configuring Always Encrypted in Azure SQL Database, where must the Column Encryption Key (CEK) be stored to maintain security? → In Azure Key Vault or a local certificate store, never in the database
3. What is the role of documentation in Network Security Fundamentals for Microsoft Security Operations Analyst? → It provides an accurate record for accountability and reference
4. An analyst needs to remediate a compromised account in Microsoft Entra ID Protection. Which combination of actions fully remediates the risk? → Reset password, revoke all sessions, and confirm user is compromised
5. Which Azure service allows you to enforce minimum TLS version and cipher suite policies across your organization's resources? → Azure Policy
6. How does collaboration enhance Cryptography & Encryption in Microsoft Security Operations Analyst? → It brings diverse perspectives and improves outcomes
7. What is the purpose of the 'Entity behavior analytics' (UEBA) feature in Microsoft Sentinel? → To establish baselines and detect anomalous behavior per user and entity
8. Which KQL function is used to detect anomalies in a time series within Microsoft Sentinel, returning a spike or drop indicator? → series_decompose_anomalies()
9. Which log source in Microsoft Sentinel contains details about Azure resource authorization failures, including RBAC denials? → AzureActivity
10. What is the role of a code of conduct in Microsoft Security Operations Analyst practice? → It establishes expected behavioral and professional standards
11. Which approach best supports quality outcomes in Threat Intelligence & Analysis for Microsoft Security Operations Analyst? → Systematic application of evidence-based methods
12. Which advanced hunting KQL query technique allows a Defender XDR analyst to parameterize a query and reuse it across multiple investigations? → Saved functions in the Sentinel function library
13. What is the role of documentation in Cloud Security Architecture for Microsoft Security Operations Analyst? → It provides an accurate record for accountability and reference
14. Which of the following is a key component of regulatory compliance? → Maintaining audit logs
15. What is the importance of staying current with trends in Threat Intelligence & Analysis for Microsoft Security Operations Analyst? → It ensures practices remain effective and relevant
16. Which of the following is a key strategy in incident remediation? → Applying security patches and updates
17. In Microsoft Sentinel, which built-in workbook provides an overview of data ingestion health, including volume trends and connector status? → Data Collection Health
18. What is the primary goal of security governance? → Align security policies with business objectives
19. Which Microsoft security solution provides endpoint threat detection and response? → Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
20. Microsoft Defender for Identity raises a 'Suspected Golden Ticket usage' alert. What does this indicate about the attacker's access level? → The attacker forged a Kerberos TGT using the KRBTGT account hash
21. Which role is responsible for overseeing compliance in an organization? → Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)
22. What is the primary benefit of security automation? → Reduces response time and minimizes errors
23. In Microsoft Security Operations Analyst, what is a risk matrix used for? → Evaluating risks based on likelihood and impact
24. How does collaboration enhance Cloud Security Architecture in Microsoft Security Operations Analyst? → It brings diverse perspectives and improves outcomes
25. In Microsoft Sentinel, what is the purpose of the 'entity mapping' section in an analytic rule? → Maps query output fields to recognized entity types for incident enrichment
26. Which tool is most commonly used for real-time security monitoring in Microsoft environments? → Microsoft Sentinel
27. Which Microsoft Entra ID report helps identify users who have not completed MFA registration and are at risk under a Conditional Access policy requiring MFA? → MFA registration details report (Authentication methods usage)
28. What does risk mitigation mean in Microsoft Security Operations Analyst practice? → Taking steps to reduce the likelihood or impact of identified risks
29. Which Microsoft Sentinel data connector uses the Common Event Format (CEF) over Syslog to ingest logs from third-party security appliances? → CEF via AMA
30. During a threat hunt, an analyst finds that an attacker used Kerberoasting. Which indicator would appear in Defender for Identity alerts? → Abnormal Kerberos ticket request for a service account with a weak encryption type