RRT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield RRT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What is "informed consent" in a clinical context? → Obtaining permission before treatment with full understanding of risks and benefits
2. Which finding during inspection is the most classic sign of accessory muscle recruitment in a distressed patient? → Sternocleidomastoid muscle use during inspiration
3. Persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn (PPHN) is best treated with which intervention? → Inhaled nitric oxide (iNO) and optimized ventilation
4. The Modified Medical Research Council (mMRC) dyspnea scale is specifically used to: → Quantify the degree of breathlessness in relation to activities of daily living
5. What is the purpose of "sterile dressing" in wound care? → To protect the wound from infection
6. Which of the following might a respiratory therapist do during a bronchoscopy? → Administer anesthesia
7. What is the primary goal of lung-protective ventilation in ARDS? → Limit tidal volume to 6 mL/kg IBW to prevent volutrauma
8. Which of the following scenarios might require the expertise of a respiratory therapist during surgery? → Heart surgery
9. A maximum inspiratory pressure (MIP or NIF) of -20 cmH2O in a neuromuscular disease patient suggests what? → Severely reduced inspiratory muscle strength with high intubation risk
10. What is the primary purpose of mechanical ventilation? → Supporting breathing
11. What does "SOAP" stand for in clinical documentation? → Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan
12. What does "IV" stand for in medical terminology? → Intravenous (inside a vein)
13. What does "H&P" stand for in medical documentation? → History and Progress
14. What is the purpose of "medical triage" in emergency situations? → Assessing and prioritizing patients based on severity of condition
15. What is the primary purpose of a "DNR" order in a medical context? → Do Not Resuscitate
16. What is the significance of the "Nursing Process" in clinical care? → Assessing, diagnosing, planning, implementing, and evaluating patient care
17. What is the purpose of performing the nitrogen washout test? → Measure lung volumes including FRC when a body box is unavailable
18. What is the purpose of a bag-valve-mask (BVM) device? → Delivering oxygen to the lungs
19. Which ventilator mode is most appropriate for a patient in early weaning who has some spontaneous effort? → Pressure Support Ventilation (PSV)
20. What is the purpose of incentive spirometry? → To improve lung function
21. Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is caused by: → Delayed clearance of fetal lung fluid
22. Which pulmonary function test measurement best reflects small airway function? → FEF 25–75%
23. In cardiopulmonary exercise testing (CPET), a low anaerobic threshold (AT) is most associated with: → Cardiovascular deconditioning or heart failure
24. What is the purpose of a pulmonary function test? → To evaluate lung function
25. Which opioid analgesic can suppress respiratory drive and requires careful monitoring in ventilated patients? → Fentanyl
26. A barrel chest deformity observed during patient inspection is best characterized by: → Increased AP-to-transverse diameter ratio approaching or exceeding 1:1
27. Which inhaled corticosteroid is commonly used for long-term control of asthma in the US? → Fluticasone
28. Which drug is used to reverse neuromuscular blockade in patients receiving non-depolarizing agents? → Neostigmine
29. In body plethysmography, what does functional residual capacity (FRC) represent? → Volume of air in the lungs at the end of a normal expiration
30. Which finding on spirometry is most characteristic of asthma? → Reversible airflow obstruction with significant post-bronchodilator improvement