FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot Certificate — Unmanned Aircraft General (UAG) Knowledge Test — Questions and Answers

Question 1: When a sUAS experiences unexpected signal loss (failsafe activated), which outcome is MOST dependent on pre-flight configuration?

The FAA waiver category under which the operation falls
Whether the aircraft hovers, lands, or returns home (Correct answer)
The aircraft's airframe color visibility to ground observers
The remote pilot's certificate renewal schedule

Correct answer: Whether the aircraft hovers, lands, or returns home

Failsafe behavior (hover in place, auto-land, or RTH) is programmed by the pilot before flight; incorrect configuration can result in the aircraft flying into obstacles or away from the pilot.

Question 2: Under Part 107, what is the maximum altitude a remote pilot may fly a sUAS over a congested area without a waiver, assuming no airport airspace restrictions?

200 feet AGL
1,000 feet AGL
400 feet AGL (Correct answer)
500 feet AGL

Correct answer: 400 feet AGL

The standard Part 107 altitude limit is 400 feet AGL, regardless of whether the area is congested or rural, unless a waiver is obtained.

Question 3: Which of the following describes a Temporary Flight Restriction (TFR) remote pilots typically learn about through NOTAMs?

A permanent airspace boundary around military installations
A temporary designation of airspace where flight operations are limited or prohibited for a specific time and area (Correct answer)
A mandatory transponder code assigned to all aircraft within 30 NM of a Class B airport
A frequency block reserved for ATC use during peak traffic hours

Correct answer: A temporary designation of airspace where flight operations are limited or prohibited for a specific time and area

TFRs are temporary restrictions on airspace use, issued for events like VIP movements, disasters, or air shows, and are disseminated via NOTAMs.

Question 4: Which action is REQUIRED before conducting commercial sUAS operations in Class D airspace?

Obtain a Part 107 waiver
Obtain ATC authorization (Correct answer)
File a NOTAM at least 24 hours in advance
Notify the nearest FSDO

Correct answer: Obtain ATC authorization

Class D airspace is controlled airspace requiring ATC authorization via LAANC or DroneZone before operating.

Question 5: A remote pilot receives a LAANC authorization for 200 feet in Class C airspace. The pilot then decides to fly at 300 feet. What is the regulatory outcome?

Allowed if the operation is completed in under 30 minutes
Permitted with verbal coordination with ATC
A violation; the pilot must operate within the authorized altitude (Correct answer)
Acceptable if no manned aircraft are visible

Correct answer: A violation; the pilot must operate within the authorized altitude

LAANC authorizations specify altitude ceilings; exceeding the authorized altitude constitutes a regulatory violation under Part 107.

Question 6: A client is pressuring the remote PIC to fly beyond the permitted visual line of sight. The correct response based on CRM principles is to:

Request a waiver on the spot before proceeding
Attempt the flight and use the VO to extend range
Decline the request, citing regulatory and safety requirements (Correct answer)
Fly partially beyond VLOS and return quickly

Correct answer: Decline the request, citing regulatory and safety requirements

External pressures from clients do not override regulatory requirements; the remote PIC must assertively decline unsafe or illegal requests.

Question 7: Which type of airspace is depicted on sectional charts by a dashed magenta line?

Class E airspace starting at the surface (Correct answer)
Class G airspace boundary
Class D airspace
Class C airspace

Correct answer: Class E airspace starting at the surface

A dashed magenta line indicates Class E airspace that begins at the surface, often around non-towered airports with instrument approaches.

Question 8: What is the purpose of UAS Facility Maps (UASFM)?

To identify the maximum authorized altitude for drone operations in controlled airspace grids (Correct answer)
To show registered drone flight paths
To display TFRs in real time
To map wildlife refuges and national parks

Correct answer: To identify the maximum authorized altitude for drone operations in controlled airspace grids

UAS Facility Maps show the maximum altitudes at which the FAA can authorize sUAS operations in controlled airspace without adversely affecting manned aircraft.

Question 9: A remote pilot wants to fly a sUAS within 2 nautical miles of a towered airport. Which authorization method allows operations without contacting ATC directly?

Obtain a COA from the FAA Flight Standards office
Use the FAA LAANC system for automated authorization (Correct answer)
File a NOTAM 24 hours in advance
Contact the nearest FSS for a waiver

Correct answer: Use the FAA LAANC system for automated authorization

LAANC (Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability) provides near-real-time automated airspace authorization for sUAS operations near airports.

Question 10: How does high density altitude affect a multirotor UAS's performance?

It increases lift efficiency and extends flight time
It has no measurable effect on small UAS operations
It improves battery efficiency due to cooler air temperatures
It reduces rotor thrust output, requiring higher RPM for the same lift (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It reduces rotor thrust output, requiring higher RPM for the same lift

High density altitude means thinner air, so rotors generate less thrust per revolution and must spin faster, drawing more power and reducing hover efficiency.

Question 11: A remote pilot operating near an airport without an operating control tower notices the airspace is depicted with a dashed magenta line on the sectional chart. What airspace exists at the surface at this location?

Class D airspace
Class G airspace
Class C airspace
Class E airspace to the surface (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Class E airspace to the surface

A dashed magenta line indicates Class E airspace beginning at the surface, commonly found at airports with instrument approach procedures but no tower.

Question 12: Class C airspace typically extends from the surface to what altitude around a primary airport?

2,000 ft AGL
3,000 ft MSL
2,500 ft AGL (Correct answer)
4,000 ft AGL

Correct answer: 2,500 ft AGL

Class C airspace around primary airports generally extends from the surface to 4,000 ft AGL, with an inner 5 NM surface area and an outer 10 NM shelf from 1,200 ft AGL.

Question 13: On a sectional aeronautical chart, airports with an operating control tower are depicted in what color?

Magenta
Red
Blue (Correct answer)
Green

Correct answer: Blue

Airports with operating control towers are shown in blue on sectional charts, while uncontrolled airports are depicted in magenta.

Question 14: Which of these is classified as Class A airspace and is relevant to sUAS operations?

Airspace over Class B airports
From 10,000 ft MSL to 18,000 ft MSL
Federal airways below 18,000 ft MSL
From 18,000 ft MSL to FL600 — generally no sUAS allowed without waiver (Correct answer)

Correct answer: From 18,000 ft MSL to FL600 — generally no sUAS allowed without waiver

Class A airspace exists from 18,000 ft MSL to FL600 and requires IFR operations; sUAS rarely operate here but would need a waiver.

Question 15: Which sUAS component weight is typically INCLUDED in 'basic empty weight' according to manufacturer documentation?

Permanently installed battery pack (Correct answer)
Removable payload camera
External sensor gimbal
Optional mapping software dongle

Correct answer: Permanently installed battery pack

Basic empty weight includes all permanently installed equipment including fixed battery packs; removable items like cameras and external sensors are considered payload.

Question 16: What does 'load factor' mean in the context of sUAS operations during maneuvering flight?

The ratio of payload weight to airframe weight
The number of onboard sensors divided by the total aircraft weight
The percentage of battery capacity used per minute
The multiple of gravitational force (G-force) acting on the aircraft structure during maneuvers (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The multiple of gravitational force (G-force) acting on the aircraft structure during maneuvers

Load factor is the ratio of aerodynamic lift to aircraft weight, expressed as G-forces; aggressive maneuvers increase load factor and structural stress beyond the static weight alone.

Question 17: What type of weather condition is most likely to create wind shear?

Dew point at freezing
Thunderstorms (Correct answer)
Clear skies
High-pressure systems

Correct answer: Thunderstorms

Thunderstorms are the weather condition most likely to create severe wind shear. Wind shear is a sudden, drastic change in wind speed and/or direction over a small area. The intense updrafts and downdrafts associated with thunderstorms, along with their gust fronts, can produce extremely dangerous and unpredictable wind shear conditions that pose a significant hazard to aircraft, including drones.

Question 18: When loading an sUAS with additional equipment, the remote pilot must ensure that the center of gravity (CG) remains within the manufacturer's specified limits. What is a likely consequence of operating with a CG that is too far aft?

Decreased stability and potential difficulty in recovering from a stall. (Correct answer)
Increased longitudinal stability, making the aircraft nose-heavy.
Improved maneuverability with no negative effects on stability.
A higher stall speed and increased fuel efficiency.

Correct answer: Decreased stability and potential difficulty in recovering from a stall.

An aft center of gravity (CG) makes an aircraft less stable and can make it difficult to recover from a stall. The aircraft will have a tendency to pitch up, which can exacerbate a stall condition.

Question 19: Which factor has the GREATEST influence on a fixed-wing UAS's takeoff roll distance?

Battery brand and cell chemistry
Remote pilot's control input frequency
Airframe color and surface finish
Gross weight and headwind component (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Gross weight and headwind component

A heavier aircraft requires more lift to become airborne, and a headwind reduces the ground speed needed to achieve flying speed, both directly affecting takeoff distance.

Question 20: A remote pilot is flying near a stadium during a sporting event. Which regulation is most relevant?

Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs) typically prohibit sUAS operations over large sporting events (Correct answer)
Operations are permitted if the drone stays below 100 feet AGL
A LAANC authorization is sufficient for sports venue operations
Only Class B airports restrict flight over sporting events

Correct answer: Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFRs) typically prohibit sUAS operations over large sporting events

FAR 91.145 establishes TFRs over large sporting events attended by 30,000 or more people, prohibiting all aircraft including sUAS within the restricted area.

Question 21: A Notice to Air Missions (NOTAM) that restricts airspace around a stadium during a major sporting event is classified as a:

Special Flight Rules Area
Prohibited area
NOTAM (D) permanent restriction
TFR under 14 CFR 91.145 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: TFR under 14 CFR 91.145

Sporting event TFRs are established under 14 CFR 91.145, which specifically covers major sporting events and entertainment events.

Question 22: What does a MAGENTA dashed line on a sectional chart typically indicate near an airport?

Class D airspace boundary
Class E airspace starting at 700 ft AGL (Correct answer)
Class C airspace boundary
Class B airspace boundary

Correct answer: Class E airspace starting at 700 ft AGL

A magenta dashed line (vignette) on a sectional chart indicates the boundary where Class E airspace begins at 700 ft AGL, often around airports without control towers.

Question 23: Which class of airspace requires prior authorization from ATC for UAS operations?

Class C (Correct answer)
Warning Area
Class G
Restricted Airspace

Correct answer: Class C

Class C airspace is controlled airspace surrounding busy airports that requires prior authorization from Air Traffic Control (ATC) for UAS (Unmanned Aircraft System) operations. This is due to the presence of significant manned aircraft traffic and the need to maintain separation. Class G is uncontrolled, while Restricted Airspace and Warning Areas are special use airspaces with specific restrictions, but Class C specifically mandates ATC authorization for UAS.

Question 24: Which theory focuses on career development across different life stages?

Trait and Factor Theory
Social Cognitive Career Theory
Holland’s Career Typology Theory
Super’s Life-Span, Life-Space Theory (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Super’s Life-Span, Life-Space Theory

Donald Super's Life-Span, Life-Space Theory views career development as a continuous process unfolding across an individual's entire lifespan. It emphasizes that career choices are influenced by various life roles (e.g., student, worker, parent) and stages (e.g., growth, exploration, establishment, maintenance, disengagement). This theory highlights how self-concept evolves and impacts career decisions over time, making it a dynamic and lifelong process.

Question 25: Effective communication between a remote PIC and Visual Observer should be:

Initiated only by the Visual Observer when a hazard is spotted
Clear, concise, and use standard terminology agreed upon during the crew briefing (Correct answer)
Kept to a minimum to avoid distraction
Conducted primarily via text message to create a record

Correct answer: Clear, concise, and use standard terminology agreed upon during the crew briefing

Pre-briefed, standardized communication protocols ensure that critical information is conveyed clearly and without ambiguity during the operation.

Question 26: According to FAA guidelines, what minimum flight visibility is required for sUAS operations under 14 CFR Part 107?

3 statute miles (Correct answer)
5 statute miles
2 statute miles
1 statute mile

Correct answer: 3 statute miles

Part 107 requires a minimum flight visibility of 3 statute miles from the control station, regardless of the operating altitude.

Question 27: A visual observer (VO) is used during a Part 107 operation. Which statement is TRUE?

The VO and RPIC must be able to communicate verbally at all times (Correct answer)
The VO must also hold a remote pilot certificate
A VO is required whenever operating in controlled airspace
The VO assumes RPIC responsibility when scanning the sky

Correct answer: The VO and RPIC must be able to communicate verbally at all times

Part 107 requires the RPIC and visual observer to maintain direct visual and verbal communication throughout the operation.

Question 28: At what maximum altitude can a Remote Pilot fly a UAS without a waiver?

200 feet AGL
1000 feet AGL
500 feet AGL
400 feet AGL (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 400 feet AGL

Under FAA Part 107 regulations, a Remote Pilot can operate a small UAS at a maximum altitude of 400 feet Above Ground Level (AGL) without needing a waiver. This altitude limit is established to ensure safe separation from manned aircraft, which typically operate at higher altitudes. Operations above 400 feet AGL require specific authorization from the FAA.

Question 29: Which FAA system allows remote pilots to obtain near-real-time airspace authorization for operations in controlled airspace?

ATC direct radio contact only
LAANC (Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability) (Correct answer)
NOTAM system
DroneZone only

Correct answer: LAANC (Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability)

LAANC provides near-real-time automated airspace authorization for sUAS operations in controlled airspace up to approved altitudes.

Question 30: When decoding a winds aloft forecast, the entry '9900' for wind direction and speed means:

Wind direction is 990 degrees magnetic
Winds are calm or less than 5 knots (Correct answer)
Wind speed exceeds 99 knots
Data is unavailable for that altitude

Correct answer: Winds are calm or less than 5 knots

'9900' in a winds aloft forecast is a special code indicating light and variable winds (calm or less than 5 knots).

Question 31: A remote pilot plans to fly at 350 feet AGL in an area where Class E airspace begins at 700 feet AGL. What class of airspace will the sUAS operate in?

Class E
Class G (Correct answer)
Class D
Class A

Correct answer: Class G

Since the sUAS will be at 350 feet AGL — below the 700-foot AGL floor of Class E — it will be operating in Class G (uncontrolled) airspace.

Question 32: Which of the following is considered 'Special Use Airspace' and often contains hazards such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles?

Controlled Firing Area (CFA)
Military Operations Area (MOA)
Restricted Area (Correct answer)
Alert Area

Correct answer: Restricted Area

Restricted Areas are a type of Special Use Airspace where flight is subject to restrictions due to unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles.

Question 33: A client asks you to film a property located within the lateral boundaries of Class C airspace, but outside the surface area, at an altitude of 350 feet AGL. According to regulations, what is required to conduct this operation?

No authorization is needed as the operation is outside the surface area.
A waiver for operations over people.
A transponder with altitude-reporting capability.
Authorization from ATC, which can be requested via LAANC. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Authorization from ATC, which can be requested via LAANC.

According to 14 CFR Part 107, no person may operate a small unmanned aircraft in Class C airspace without prior authorization from Air Traffic Control (ATC). The Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability (LAANC) system is the primary method for obtaining this authorization for flights under 400 feet.

Question 34: The phrase 'Say Again' in aviation radio communication means:

Switch to an alternate frequency
Confirm you received the message
Repeat your last transmission (Correct answer)
Stand by for further instructions

Correct answer: Repeat your last transmission

'Say Again' is the standard phrase requesting that the previous transmission be repeated in its entirety.

Question 35: What is the primary purpose of an Airport Advisory Area?

To indicate areas of high bird activity near airports
To warn pilots of parachute jumping activity
To provide advisory service at airports without an operating control tower (Correct answer)
To define the lateral limits of Class D airspace

Correct answer: To provide advisory service at airports without an operating control tower

An Airport Advisory Area extends 10 SM around airports without a control tower where AFSS provides advisory services.

Question 36: What is the primary purpose of the Low Altitude Authorization and Notification Capability (LAANC) system?

To register a new sUAS with the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA).
To provide real-time weather updates directly to the sUAS control station.
To provide near real-time authorization for sUAS operations in controlled airspace. (Correct answer)
To submit accident reports to the National Transportation Safety Board (NTSB).

Correct answer: To provide near real-time authorization for sUAS operations in controlled airspace.

LAANC is a collaboration between the FAA and industry that provides drone pilots with near real-time authorization to fly under 400 feet in controlled airspace and provides air traffic professionals with visibility into where and when drones will operate.

Question 37: A Part 107 waiver allows operations that would otherwise violate regulations. Who may grant such waivers?

The local FSDO only
The Department of Transportation Secretary
The National Transportation Safety Board
The FAA Administrator (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The FAA Administrator

Under §107.200, the FAA Administrator may issue waivers to allow otherwise prohibited operations.

Question 38: A remote pilot observes that the drone's battery indicator is at 30% but the planned return-to-home flight will only use approximately 20%. What ADM principle supports flying the remaining time?

Impulsivity — acting quickly to use the remaining battery
Anti-authority — ignoring manufacturer warnings
Invulnerability — knowing the drone will safely return
Risk acceptance after proper evaluation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Risk acceptance after proper evaluation

When a pilot has evaluated the risk and determined acceptable margins remain, proceeding reflects proper risk management, not a hazardous attitude.

Question 39: A remote pilot sees a NOTAM indicating a TFR established under 14 CFR 91.141. What activity does this TFR most likely protect?

Flight of Presidential or other key government officials (Correct answer)
A national disaster area
A major sporting event
Aerial firefighting operations

Correct answer: Flight of Presidential or other key government officials

TFRs established under 14 CFR 91.141 protect the airspace around VIP aircraft movements, such as the President or Vice President.

Question 40: When reading a winds aloft forecast (FB winds), the entry '9900' means:

Light and variable winds (Correct answer)
Wind speed above 99 knots (hurricane-force)
Wind speed of 99 knots from 090°
No data available for that altitude

Correct answer: Light and variable winds

In winds aloft forecasts, '9900' is a coded entry meaning winds are light and variable (less than 5 knots).

Question 41: What is the significance of the phonetic digit 'Niner' instead of 'Nine' in aviation radio communications?

It indicates the number is part of a transponder code
It differentiates the number from German 'Nein' (meaning no) to avoid confusion (Correct answer)
It is an older convention with no modern relevance
It signals that the number precedes a decimal point

Correct answer: It differentiates the number from German 'Nein' (meaning no) to avoid confusion

'Niner' is used instead of 'nine' to prevent confusion with the German word 'Nein' meaning 'no,' which is critical for international aviation communications.

Question 42: Alert areas are depicted on sectional charts with what color boundary?

Blue (Correct answer)
Magenta with hatching
Magenta
Red

Correct answer: Blue

Alert areas are outlined with a solid blue boundary on sectional charts, indicating areas with a high volume of pilot training or unusual aerial activity.

Question 43: Under 14 CFR Part 107, a remote pilot must report a sUAS accident to the FAA within how many calendar days when it meets the reporting threshold?

10 days (Correct answer)
5 days
48 hours
30 days

Correct answer: 10 days

Part 107.9 requires accident reports to be submitted to the FAA within 10 calendar days when the threshold criteria are met.

Question 44: What weather phenomenon is most likely to cause a drone to experience a sudden, uncommanded descent during flight?

Ground effect
Temperature inversion
Radiation fog
Microburst downdraft (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Microburst downdraft

A microburst produces intense localized downdrafts that can exceed a drone's climb capability, causing sudden uncommanded descent.

Question 45: Which element of single-pilot resource management (SRM) involves using all available information — weather data, charts, NOTAMs — before and during a flight?

Information management (Correct answer)
Automation management
Task management
Aeronautical decision-making

Correct answer: Information management

Information management focuses on gathering, evaluating, and applying all relevant data to support safe decision-making throughout the flight.

Question 46: A remote PIC notices the Visual Observer (VO) seems distracted and is not scanning effectively. The best CRM action is to:

Immediately land and report the VO to the FAA
Replace the VO with another crew member mid-flight
Continue the flight and monitor the VO's performance
Verbally re-brief the VO on their scanning responsibilities and confirm readiness (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Verbally re-brief the VO on their scanning responsibilities and confirm readiness

Good CRM requires actively communicating expectations and ensuring all crew members are performing their duties before continuing operations.

Question 47: A remote pilot wants to fly at night. Which Part 107 requirement must be met?

File a NOTAM 24 hours in advance
Obtain a waiver or use anti-collision lights visible for 3 statute miles (Correct answer)
Obtain a waiver only — lights are not required
No additional requirements apply

Correct answer: Obtain a waiver or use anti-collision lights visible for 3 statute miles

Part 107 requires sUAS operating at night to have anti-collision lighting visible for at least 3 statute miles; this is now a standard rule (no waiver needed for lighting, but the lighting itself is mandatory).

Question 48: Which of the following is NOT a reportable accident threshold under 14 CFR Part 107.9?

Serious injury to any person
Property damage exceeding $500 to a single object other than the sUAS
Property damage of $400 to a single object other than the sUAS (Correct answer)
Loss of consciousness by any person caused by the sUAS

Correct answer: Property damage of $400 to a single object other than the sUAS

Property damage of $400 falls below the $500 threshold, so it does not trigger a mandatory FAA accident report.

Question 49: Which weather phenomenon is most hazardous to sUAS operations because it can rapidly reduce visibility to near zero and is difficult to forecast precisely?

Radiation fog (Correct answer)
High-altitude cirrus clouds
High pressure ridges
Scattered cumulus clouds

Correct answer: Radiation fog

Radiation fog forms rapidly after sunset under clear skies with light winds and can reduce visibility to near zero within minutes, making it especially hazardous.

Question 50: What does Social Cognitive Career Theory emphasize in career decision-making?

Career decisions are influenced by self-efficacy and support systems. (Correct answer)
People choose careers randomly without influence from past experiences.
Genetics is the main factor in career development.
Only personality determines career success.

Correct answer: Career decisions are influenced by self-efficacy and support systems.

Social Cognitive Career Theory (SCCT) emphasizes the role of self-efficacy (one's belief in their ability to succeed), outcome expectations, and personal goals in shaping career interests and choices. It also highlights the influence of environmental factors, such as support systems and barriers, on an individual's career path. SCCT suggests that people are more likely to pursue careers where they believe they can perform well and achieve desired outcomes, often with the help of their support networks.

Question 51: Which product should a remote pilot consult for the most up-to-date short-range precipitation forecasts and storm cell locations?

Winds Aloft Forecast (FB)
Area Forecast (FA)
Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF)
Nexrad radar imagery (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Nexrad radar imagery

Nexrad (WSR-88D) radar imagery provides real-time precipitation intensity, storm cell locations, and movement, making it the best tool for short-range precipitation awareness.

Question 52: Which emergency procedure is correct when a sUAS experiences a fly-away due to compass interference?

Activate return-to-home to let the system self-correct
Continue the mission and correct interference at the next waypoint
Switch off GPS, take manual control, and land as soon as possible (Correct answer)
Increase altitude to 400 AGL immediately

Correct answer: Switch off GPS, take manual control, and land as soon as possible

Compass interference corrupts GPS-based navigation; switching to manual/attitude mode removes the erroneous GPS input, giving the pilot direct control to execute an emergency landing.

Question 53: Which pre-flight planning step BEST prepares a remote pilot for a lost-link emergency?

Increasing the video downlink bandwidth for better situational awareness
Programming a lost-link failsafe action such as Return-to-Home or hover-and-land (Correct answer)
Carrying a spare transmitter to switch frequencies mid-flight
Filing a NOTAM so ATC can take control of the aircraft

Correct answer: Programming a lost-link failsafe action such as Return-to-Home or hover-and-land

Programming a lost-link failsafe before flight ensures the aircraft takes a predetermined safe action if the control link is lost.

Question 54: A remote pilot is planning a mission requiring maximum payload on a warm summer afternoon at a high-elevation site. What pre-mission action BEST ensures safe operations?

Increase the propeller pitch to compensate for density altitude
Fly faster to generate translational lift and offset the weight
Calculate density altitude, verify the aircraft can hover with adequate power margin, and reduce payload if necessary (Correct answer)
Disable non-essential sensors to reduce processor load on the flight controller

Correct answer: Calculate density altitude, verify the aircraft can hover with adequate power margin, and reduce payload if necessary

Calculating density altitude and verifying sufficient power margin (typically 20-30% motor headroom in hover) ensures the aircraft can safely operate before committing to flight with maximum payload.

Question 55: What is the minimum distance a sUAS must stay below clouds under standard Part 107 rules?

1,000 ft
2,000 ft
3,000 ft
500 ft (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 500 ft

Part 107 requires sUAS to remain at least 500 ft below clouds and 2,000 ft horizontally from clouds.

Question 56: An AIRMET Sierra (AIRMET S) is issued to warn pilots of:

Severe turbulence at all altitudes
Tropical storm development over open water
Severe icing above 18,000 feet MSL
IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscuration (Correct answer)

Correct answer: IFR conditions and/or extensive mountain obscuration

AIRMET Sierra covers IFR conditions (ceilings below 1,000 feet and/or visibility below 3 miles) and mountain obscuration hazards.

Question 57: Under Part 107, what is the maximum groundspeed allowed for a small UAS?

100 knots
87 mph (Correct answer)
87 knots
100 mph

Correct answer: 87 mph

Part 107 limits small UAS groundspeed to 87 knots (100 mph).

Question 58: When operating an RPAS in the vicinity of an uncontrolled aerodrome that has a designated Mandatory Frequency (MF), which of the following actions is required?

Contact the control tower before entering the zone.
Obtain a Special Flight Operations Certificate (SFOC) for all flights.
Monitor the frequency and broadcast intentions as required. (Correct answer)
Broadcast intentions only if another aircraft is visible.

Correct answer: Monitor the frequency and broadcast intentions as required.

In a Mandatory Frequency (MF) area, pilots of radio-equipped aircraft are required to be equipped with a functioning radio and to make specific reports regarding their position and intentions on the designated frequency. This allows all traffic in the area to be aware of each other's movements.

Question 59: A sUAS experiences a sudden loss of video feed from the FPV camera during flight. The remote pilot should:

Maintain visual line of sight (VLOS) using direct visual observation and land safely (Correct answer)
Switch to autonomous waypoint mode immediately
Increase altitude to restore the video signal
Continue the mission using the last known video frame

Correct answer: Maintain visual line of sight (VLOS) using direct visual observation and land safely

FPV video is not a substitute for VLOS; when video is lost, the pilot must rely on direct visual observation to safely complete and terminate the flight.

Question 60: When winds are reported as '00000KT' in a METAR, a remote pilot should understand that:

Winds are calm with no appreciable speed or direction (Correct answer)
The wind sensor has malfunctioned and data is unreliable
Winds are variable at 0 to 5 knots
The observation was made at midnight local time

Correct answer: Winds are calm with no appreciable speed or direction

'00000KT' in a METAR means winds are calm — zero degrees direction and zero knots speed, indicating essentially no wind at the observation time.

FAA Part 107 Remote Pilot Certificate — Unmanned Aircraft General (UAG) Knowledge Test

The FAA Part 107 UAG Aeronautical Knowledge Test certifies remote pilots to legally fly small unmanned aircraft systems (drones) commercially under 14 CFR Part 107, covering regulations, airspace, weather, and flight operations.

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

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