NCLEX-RN Flashcards
7 cards from real RN practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 NCLEX-RN flashcards as text
A nurse is planning care for a client with major depression who is started on fluoxetine (Prozac). Which statement about antidepressant therapy is most important to include in discharge teaching?
Answer: Therapeutic effects may take 2 to 4 weeks to appear.
SSRIs typically require 2–4 weeks to produce full therapeutic effects; clients must be informed to continue the medication and not expect immediate results.
A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric (NG) tube. Before administering a tube feeding, which action confirms proper tube placement?
Answer: Aspirate gastric contents and check pH
Aspirating contents and verifying a pH of ≤5.5 is the most reliable bedside method to confirm gastric versus pulmonary tube placement.
A nurse is reviewing laboratory values for a client on digoxin therapy. Which finding should prompt the nurse to hold the medication and contact the provider?
Answer: Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
Hypokalemia potentiates digoxin toxicity by competing for the same myocardial binding sites; a potassium of 3.0 mEq/L significantly increases the risk of fatal arrhythmias.
A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected stroke. Which assessment tool helps identify stroke symptoms and guides the decision to activate the stroke response team?
Answer: Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale (CPSS)
The Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale assesses facial droop, arm drift, and speech abnormality to rapidly identify stroke in the acute setting.
A nurse is caring for a client with a chest tube following a pneumothorax. The water-seal chamber shows continuous bubbling. What does this finding indicate?
Answer: A persistent air leak from the lung or system
Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an ongoing air leak, either from the lung itself or from a break in the closed drainage system.
A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter in a female client. After cleansing the urethral meatus and inserting the catheter 2–3 inches, urine does not flow. What is the most likely explanation?
Answer: The catheter is inserted into the vagina
In female clients, the catheter can easily be inadvertently inserted into the vagina rather than the urethra, requiring removal and reinsertion with a sterile catheter.
A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving IV vancomycin for 30 minutes when the client develops flushing and erythema of the face, neck, and upper chest. What is the priority nursing intervention?
Answer: Slow the infusion rate and notify the provider
Red Man Syndrome is a rate-related reaction to vancomycin, not a true allergy; slowing the infusion rate typically resolves the flushing and erythema.