Practice Tests Academy (PTA) General Aptitude Assessment — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which connective tissue structure connects muscle to bone?

Tendon (Correct answer)
Fascia
Ligament
Cartilage

Correct answer: Tendon

Tendons are dense regular connective tissue structures that transmit muscular forces to bones, enabling joint movement.

Question 2: The United Nations was established after World War II primarily to promote what goal?

Free trade between nations
International peace and cooperation (Correct answer)
Global economic growth
Military alliance among democracies

Correct answer: International peace and cooperation

The United Nations was founded in 1945 to promote international peace, security, and cooperation among nations following the devastation of World War II.

Question 3: Which law of thermodynamics states that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only converted?

First law (Correct answer)
Second law
Zeroth law
Third law

Correct answer: First law

The first law of thermodynamics (conservation of energy) states that total energy in a closed system remains constant — it only changes form.

Question 4: A patient's grip strength improved from 25 lbs to 35 lbs. What is the percentage increase?

28%
71%
40% (Correct answer)
10%

Correct answer: 40%

(35 − 25) ÷ 25 × 100 = 40%.

Question 5: Which president issued the Emancipation Proclamation in 1863, declaring enslaved people in Confederate states to be free?

Andrew Jackson
Ulysses S. Grant
Abraham Lincoln (Correct answer)
George Washington

Correct answer: Abraham Lincoln

President Abraham Lincoln issued the Emancipation Proclamation on January 1, 1863, as a wartime executive order during the Civil War.

Question 6: A passage explains: 'Manual muscle testing (MMT) grades range from 0 to 5. Grade 0 indicates no visible contraction; Grade 1 is a visible contraction without movement; Grade 3 is full ROM against gravity without resistance; Grade 5 is full ROM against full resistance.' A patient can complete full knee extension against gravity but fatigues quickly with minimal added resistance. Which MMT grade best applies?

Grade 5 — full ROM against full resistance
Grade 2 — full ROM with gravity eliminated
Grade 4 — full ROM against gravity with some resistance (Correct answer)
Grade 3 — full ROM against gravity, no resistance

Correct answer: Grade 4 — full ROM against gravity with some resistance

The patient completes full ROM against gravity and tolerates some resistance but not full resistance, placing them at Grade 4.

Question 7: A passage reads: 'When reading research articles, it is important to distinguish between correlation and causation. Two variables may be correlated — meaning they change together — without one causing the other. A confounding variable may explain the relationship.' A study finds that patients who attend more PT sessions have better outcomes. What caution does the passage suggest when interpreting this finding?

Correlation studies are always more reliable than randomized trials
More PT sessions always cause better outcomes in all patients
The study proves PT is the most effective healthcare intervention
The relationship may be correlation, and a third variable could explain it (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The relationship may be correlation, and a third variable could explain it

The passage warns that correlation does not imply causation and that confounding variables may explain observed relationships.

Question 8: A graph shows that City A has 3 times the population of City B, which has 20,000 people. What is City A's population?

23,000
40,000
80,000
60,000 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 60,000

City A = 3 × 20,000 = 60,000 people.

Question 9: Which sentence contains a dangling modifier?

The therapist completed the evaluation and wrote the treatment plan.
After completing the evaluation, the therapist wrote the treatment plan.
After completing the evaluation, the treatment plan was written. (Correct answer)
The treatment plan was written after the evaluation was completed.

Correct answer: After completing the evaluation, the treatment plan was written.

In sentence A, 'After completing the evaluation' dangles because a treatment plan cannot complete an evaluation — the therapist does.

Question 10: Which of the following represents a reflationary monetary policy?

Introducing a tax on financial transactions to lower the amount of speculative transactions
Lowering interest rates helps stimulate the economy during a recession (Correct answer)
Increasing education investments to increase the economy's long-term competitiveness
Reducing government expenditure to rem in a financial deficit

Correct answer: Lowering interest rates helps stimulate the economy during a recession

A reflationary monetary policy aims to stimulate economic growth and combat deflation or recession. Lowering interest rates makes borrowing cheaper for businesses and consumers, encouraging investment and spending. This increase in aggregate demand helps to boost economic activity and move the economy out of a downturn.

Question 11: When applying a thermal modality, the PTA discovers the patient has significantly decreased sensation in the treatment area. The MOST appropriate action is to:

Avoid the modality and consult the supervising PT before proceeding (Correct answer)
Increase modality duration to compensate for reduced sensation
Proceed with standard protocol and document the sensory deficit afterward
Reduce intensity and continue the treatment

Correct answer: Avoid the modality and consult the supervising PT before proceeding

Impaired sensation is a contraindication to many thermal modalities because the patient cannot reliably report tissue damage.

Question 12: What is the purpose of the Supreme Court?

To conduct criminal trials
To interpret the Constitution and determine whether laws and government actions are constitutional (Correct answer)
To elect the President
To make new laws

Correct answer: To interpret the Constitution and determine whether laws and government actions are constitutional

The Supreme Court serves as the final arbiter of constitutional questions, determining whether laws, executive actions, and lower court decisions align with the Constitution.

Question 13: The coracoid process is a palpable landmark on which bone?

Clavicle
Sternum
Humerus
Scapula (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Scapula

The coracoid process is a hook-shaped projection of the scapula, palpable just below the clavicle on the anterior shoulder.

Question 14: A PTA treating a post-surgical knee patient notices the incision site is red, warm, and has increased drainage. The MOST appropriate response is to:

Apply a warm compress to improve circulation around the site
Ask the patient if they would like to stop the session
Document the finding, avoid the area, and notify the supervising PT promptly (Correct answer)
Continue treatment because some redness is expected during normal healing

Correct answer: Document the finding, avoid the area, and notify the supervising PT promptly

Signs of possible infection at a surgical site are a serious complication that requires documentation and immediate PT notification.

Question 15: Which sentence contains a comma splice?

The patient improved; therapy was effective.
The patient improved, therapy was effective. (Correct answer)
The patient improved after effective therapy.
The patient improved because therapy was effective.

Correct answer: The patient improved, therapy was effective.

A comma splice incorrectly joins two independent clauses with only a comma instead of a conjunction or semicolon.

Question 16: How do context clues help with unfamiliar vocabulary?

Only dictionary definitions are useful
Context clues only work for common words
Surrounding words and sentences provide hints about the unknown word's meaning (Correct answer)
They do not help

Correct answer: Surrounding words and sentences provide hints about the unknown word's meaning

Context clues include definitions, examples, synonyms, antonyms, and general sense within the surrounding text that help determine an unfamiliar word's meaning.

Question 17: A therapist treats 6 patients daily, each session lasting 40 minutes. How many total minutes of therapy are delivered in a 5-day week?

1,200 (Correct answer)
1,000
1,400
1,100

Correct answer: 1,200

6 patients × 40 minutes × 5 days = 1,200 total minutes of therapy.

Question 18: When a PTA exam answer choice contains the word 'always' or 'never,' what should the test-taker do?

Eliminate it without reading further
Treat it the same as any other answer choice
Be cautious, as absolute statements are rarely true in clinical practice (Correct answer)
Select it immediately as it signals a definitive clinical rule

Correct answer: Be cautious, as absolute statements are rarely true in clinical practice

Absolute words like 'always' or 'never' are red flags because clinical practice rarely has universal rules.

Question 19: A bar chart shows monthly rainfall. If June had 4 inches and July had 6 inches, by what percent did rainfall increase?

33%
66%
50% (Correct answer)
25%

Correct answer: 50%

Percent increase = ((6 − 4) ÷ 4) × 100 = (2 ÷ 4) × 100 = 50%.

Question 20: A therapist adds 50 mL of water to 200 mL of concentrate to make a solution. What percentage of the final solution is concentrate?

40%
80% (Correct answer)
25%
75%

Correct answer: 80%

200 ÷ 250 × 100 = 80%; the final solution volume is 250 mL.

Question 21: The sliding filament theory explains muscle contraction by describing the interaction between:

Sarcolemma and T-tubules
Actin and myosin filaments (Correct answer)
Collagen and elastin fibers
Tropomyosin and titin only

Correct answer: Actin and myosin filaments

The sliding filament theory explains that myosin heads bind actin filaments, pulling them inward to shorten the sarcomere and produce contraction.

Question 22: How do you solve a proportion?

Multiply all four numbers
Cross-multiply and solve for the unknown variable (Correct answer)
Subtract the smaller from the larger
Add all four numbers

Correct answer: Cross-multiply and solve for the unknown variable

In a proportion a/b = c/d, cross-multiplying gives ad = bc, which can be solved for any unknown variable.

Question 23: A passage reads: 'When documenting functional limitations, therapists should use objective, measurable terms. For example, instead of writing "patient has difficulty walking," the therapist should write "patient ambulates 50 feet with a standard walker, requiring moderate assistance due to impaired balance."' What principle does this passage illustrate?

Therapists should avoid mentioning assistive devices in documentation
Functional limitations should be described in measurable, specific terms (Correct answer)
A standard walker is always required for patients with balance impairment
Documentation should focus on the patient's subjective complaints

Correct answer: Functional limitations should be described in measurable, specific terms

The passage contrasts vague language with specific, measurable documentation, illustrating the principle of objective clinical writing.

Question 24: The Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) was signed into law in which year?

2001
1985
1995
1990 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1990

The ADA was signed on July 26, 1990, prohibiting discrimination against individuals with disabilities in public life, workplaces, and services.

Question 25: In times of rising prices, what impact does using the historical cost concept have on a company's asset values and profit?

Asset values understated and profit overstated (Correct answer)
Asset values and profit both overstated
Asset values overstated and profit understated
Asset values and profit both understated

Correct answer: Asset values understated and profit overstated

Under the historical cost concept, assets are recorded at their original purchase price. In times of rising prices (inflation), this means the reported asset values will be lower than their current market value, leading to understatement. Consequently, depreciation charges based on these lower historical costs will be smaller, resulting in higher reported profits than if assets were valued at current replacement costs.

Question 26: Joan is set to begin her new job as a secretary at a legal company. Which of the following is likely to be an important component of her job?

Controlling transaction processing.
Controlling the provision of internal information
Ensure that internal procedures are highly managed, efficient, and effective.
Ensuring that legal tasks are performed appropriately at the board level. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ensuring that legal tasks are performed appropriately at the board level.

In a legal company, a secretary, especially at a higher level, often has responsibilities beyond general administrative tasks. Ensuring legal tasks are performed appropriately at the board level involves managing corporate governance documents, preparing for board meetings, and ensuring compliance with legal procedures. This role is critical for the company's legal integrity and operational efficiency, making it a key component of a secretary's job in such an environment.

Question 27: Which word means a feeling of deep admiration for someone or something?

Awe (Correct answer)
Contempt
Hostility
Indifference

Correct answer: Awe

Awe means a feeling of reverential respect mixed with wonder and admiration.

Question 28: When studying for the NPTE-PTA, a student reviews flashcards on dermatomes immediately after the initial learning session and then again after two days. This best describes:

Elaborative encoding
Interleaving
Massed practice
Spaced repetition (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Spaced repetition

Spaced repetition involves reviewing material at increasing intervals, which strengthens long-term memory consolidation.

Question 29: Which sentence uses active voice correctly?

The patient performed the exercises. (Correct answer)
The exercises were performed by the patient.
The exercises had been performed.
Exercises were being performed by the staff.

Correct answer: The patient performed the exercises.

Active voice places the subject (patient) before the verb (performed), making the sentence more direct and clear.

Question 30: Maria just accepted a position as a management accountant for a well-known financial organization. She needs to comprehend the organization's financial situation. What should she do initially to get this understanding?

Submit the company's accounting to the IFRS.
Total all of the daybooks and insert them into ledgers.
Notify the tax authorities about the organization's revenues.
Record the organization's transactions in the principal entry books. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Record the organization's transactions in the principal entry books.

To comprehend an organization's financial situation, the initial and most fundamental step is to accurately record all financial transactions. These transactions are systematically documented in the principal entry books (like journals), which form the foundation of the accounting system. This ensures that all financial activity is captured before any further analysis or reporting can occur.

Question 31: A PTA exam scenario describes a patient who is not following their home exercise program. The MOST appropriate PTA response is to:

Explore barriers to adherence and collaboratively modify the program with the patient (Correct answer)
Document non-compliance in the chart and make no changes to the program
Discharge the patient for failure to participate in their treatment plan
Report the patient's non-compliance directly to the insurance carrier

Correct answer: Explore barriers to adherence and collaboratively modify the program with the patient

Exploring barriers and collaborating on modifications reflects patient-centered care principles and supports long-term adherence.

Question 32: Which sentence uses 'who' correctly?

Give the record to whomever needs it most.
The patient whom was treated recovered.
The therapist who treated the patient won an award. (Correct answer)
The therapist whom won the award.

Correct answer: The therapist who treated the patient won an award.

'Who' is used as a subject pronoun; in sentence C, 'who' is correctly the subject of its clause (who treated).

Question 33: What is photosynthesis?

Animals digesting food
Rocks breaking down over time
Plants absorbing water through roots
The process by which plants convert sunlight, water, and CO2 into glucose and oxygen (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The process by which plants convert sunlight, water, and CO2 into glucose and oxygen

Photosynthesis allows plants to use solar energy to combine carbon dioxide and water into glucose (food) and oxygen.

Question 34: Which situation represents a conflict of interest that a PTA must avoid?

Documenting treatment provided by a co-treating colleague on the same team
Accepting a gift of significant monetary value from a grateful patient (Correct answer)
Scheduling additional visits after a patient's insurance authorization is confirmed
Treating a patient referred by their primary care physician

Correct answer: Accepting a gift of significant monetary value from a grateful patient

Accepting gifts of significant value creates a conflict of interest and may compromise professional objectivity and ethical standards.

Question 35: Which carpal bone articulates directly with the radius at the radiocarpal joint?

Scaphoid (Correct answer)
Pisiform
Hamate
Trapezium

Correct answer: Scaphoid

The scaphoid (and lunate) articulates with the radius to form the radiocarpal (wrist) joint on the lateral side.

Question 36: What does 'eloquent' mean?

Fluent and persuasive in speech or writing (Correct answer)
Short and unclear
Rude and dismissive
Loud and disruptive

Correct answer: Fluent and persuasive in speech or writing

Eloquent means having or exercising the ability to speak or write effectively and persuasively.

Question 37: A 12-week treatment plan includes 3 one-hour sessions per week. How many total hours of therapy will the patient complete?

24 hours
36 hours (Correct answer)
30 hours
48 hours

Correct answer: 36 hours

12 weeks × 3 sessions × 1 hour = 36 total hours.

Question 38: What is the next number in the sequence: 100, 90, 81, 73, 66, ___?

58
59
63
60 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 60

The differences decrease by 1 each step (10, 9, 8, 7, 6), so 66 − 6 = 60.

Question 39: A 'minimal clinically important difference' (MCID) on an outcome measure is BEST described as:

Any change that reaches statistical significance (p < 0.05)
The smallest change that is meaningful to the patient's daily function (Correct answer)
A change of at least 50% from the baseline score
Any change documented by the treating clinician

Correct answer: The smallest change that is meaningful to the patient's daily function

The MCID represents the threshold of change that patients perceive as beneficial, distinguishing meaningful improvement from measurement noise.

Question 40: What is an antonym for 'verbose'?

Elaborate
Concise (Correct answer)
Lengthy
Wordy

Correct answer: Concise

Verbose means using more words than needed, so its antonym is 'concise,' meaning brief and to the point.

Question 41: The antecubital fossa is located on the:

Medial wrist
Lateral shoulder
Anterior elbow (Correct answer)
Posterior knee

Correct answer: Anterior elbow

The antecubital fossa is the triangular hollow on the anterior (front) surface of the elbow joint.

Question 42: How do you convert a fraction to a percentage?

Add 100 to the fraction
Divide the numerator by the denominator and multiply by 100 (Correct answer)
Subtract the numerator from 100
Multiply both numbers by 100

Correct answer: Divide the numerator by the denominator and multiply by 100

To convert a fraction to a percentage, divide the top number by the bottom number, then multiply by 100. For example, 3/4 = 0.75 × 100 = 75%.

Question 43: To manage exam-day anxiety before sitting the NPTE-PTA, evidence-based strategies include all of the following EXCEPT:

Light physical activity the day before
Diaphragmatic breathing exercises
Adequate sleep in the nights leading up to the exam
Reviewing new, unfamiliar material the morning of the exam (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reviewing new, unfamiliar material the morning of the exam

Introducing new material the morning of an exam increases anxiety without sufficient time for encoding, which is counterproductive.

Question 44: A PTA discovers a colleague is documenting treatments that were not performed. The BEST course of action is to:

Report the concern through appropriate channels such as a supervisor or compliance officer (Correct answer)
Confront the colleague publicly at the next staff meeting
Help the colleague by co-signing the inaccurate documentation
Ignore it to avoid workplace conflict

Correct answer: Report the concern through appropriate channels such as a supervisor or compliance officer

Fraudulent documentation is a serious ethical and legal violation that must be reported through proper channels; silence makes the PTA complicit.

Question 45: What is subject-verb agreement?

The verb must match the subject in number — singular subjects take singular verbs (Correct answer)
Verbs always end in -s
Subjects and verbs must be adjacent
Agreement only applies to past tense

Correct answer: The verb must match the subject in number — singular subjects take singular verbs

Subject-verb agreement requires singular subjects to pair with singular verbs and plural subjects with plural verbs: 'The dog runs' vs. 'The dogs run'.

Question 46: When torn between two answer choices on a PTA exam, what is the MOST effective strategy?

Choose the answer with more technical terminology
Go with your gut and pick the first one you read
Always pick the longer answer as it is likely more complete
Re-read the question stem to identify exactly what is being asked (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Re-read the question stem to identify exactly what is being asked

Re-reading the question stem often reveals a key qualifier that differentiates the correct answer from a close distractor.

Question 47: What does the prefix 'mis-' mean in the word 'misinterpret'?

Before
After
Again
Wrongly (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Wrongly

The prefix 'mis-' means wrongly or badly, so 'misinterpret' means to interpret incorrectly.

Question 48: Which of the following best describes osmosis?

Movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from low to high solute concentration (Correct answer)
Diffusion of oxygen into red blood cells
Active transport of ions against a gradient
Movement of solute from low to high concentration

Correct answer: Movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane from low to high solute concentration

Osmosis is the passive movement of water across a semi-permeable membrane toward the area of higher solute concentration.

Question 49: What is the function of the International Financial Reporting Interpretations Committee?

To provide assistance on the use of International Financial Reporting Standards. (Correct answer)
To develop a set of global accounting standards

Correct answer: To provide assistance on the use of International Financial Reporting Standards.

The International Financial Reporting Interpretations Committee (IFRIC), now known as the IFRS Interpretations Committee, plays a crucial role in supporting the consistent application of International Financial Reporting Standards (IFRS). Its primary function is to provide timely guidance and authoritative interpretations on complex or emerging accounting issues, ensuring uniformity and clarity in financial reporting globally.

Question 50: What is the relationship between fractions, decimals, and percentages?

Fractions cannot be converted to decimals
They are three different ways to represent the same value: 1/2 = 0.5 = 50% (Correct answer)
They represent different values
Percentages are always larger than decimals

Correct answer: They are three different ways to represent the same value: 1/2 = 0.5 = 50%

Fractions, decimals, and percentages are interchangeable representations: 1/4 = 0.25 = 25%.

Question 51: How should a contingent liability be shown in a company's financial statements if the possibility of a transfer of economic advantages to settle it is remote?

No disclosure or provision is needed. (Correct answer)
Disclosed by note and no provision is provided.

Correct answer: No disclosure or provision is needed.

According to accounting standards (e.g., IAS 37), a contingent liability is only disclosed by note if the possibility of an outflow of economic benefits is 'not remote' (i.e., possible or probable). If the possibility of a transfer of economic advantages to settle the liability is remote, meaning very unlikely, then no disclosure in the financial statements or provision (recognition as a liability) is required.

Question 52: What does it mean to evaluate a source's credibility?

Assessing the author's expertise, the publication's reputation, and the evidence supporting claims (Correct answer)
Checking if the source is recent
Credibility cannot be assessed
Only looking at the source's length

Correct answer: Assessing the author's expertise, the publication's reputation, and the evidence supporting claims

Evaluating credibility involves checking the author's qualifications, the publisher's reputation, the evidence provided, potential biases, and corroboration from other sources.

Question 53: In a table showing test scores, the values are 72, 85, 90, 68, and 75. What is the median score?

85
72
75 (Correct answer)
90

Correct answer: 75

Arranged in order: 68, 72, 75, 85, 90 — the middle value (median) is 75.

Question 54: Which of the following is a homophone pair?

Big / Large
Run / Walk
Happy / Joyful
Their / There (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Their / There

Homophones are words that sound alike but have different meanings and spellings, such as 'their' and 'there.'

Question 55: In a SOAP note, which section documents the patient's subjective complaints and symptoms as reported by the patient?

P (Plan)
S (Subjective) (Correct answer)
A (Assessment)
O (Objective)

Correct answer: S (Subjective)

The S (Subjective) section records what the patient reports about their own condition, symptoms, and concerns.

Question 56: What is the denotation of a word?

The emotional feeling a word evokes
The dictionary definition of a word (Correct answer)
A word with the same meaning as another
A word that sounds like what it describes

Correct answer: The dictionary definition of a word

Denotation is the literal, dictionary definition of a word as opposed to its connotation (emotional tone).

Question 57: What does the word 'ambiguous' mean?

Clear and definite
Extremely detailed
Completely false
Open to more than one interpretation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Open to more than one interpretation

Ambiguous means open to more than one interpretation or having an unclear meaning.

Question 58: What are the three main parts of an essay?

Summary, analysis, and opinion
Title, paragraphs, and bibliography
Introduction, body paragraphs, and conclusion (Correct answer)
Only body paragraphs

Correct answer: Introduction, body paragraphs, and conclusion

Essays have a clear three-part structure: the introduction presents the thesis, body paragraphs develop supporting arguments, and the conclusion summarizes and reinforces the main points.

Question 59: Which of the following things may show on a company's Statement of Cash Flows? (1) Surplus from revaluation of non-current assets (2) Proceeds from the issuing of shares. (3) Proposed dividend. (4) Dividends received.

2 and 4 (Correct answer)
1 and 2
1 and 3
3 and 4

Correct answer: 2 and 4

The Statement of Cash Flows reports actual cash inflows and outflows from operating, investing, and financing activities. Proceeds from the issuing of shares (2) represent a cash inflow from financing activities. Dividends received (4) are a cash inflow, typically from investing activities. Surplus from revaluation (1) is a non-cash item, and proposed dividends (3) are not cash outflows until they are actually paid.

Question 60: What is interleaving in study practice?

Studying one topic exhaustively before moving to the next
Studying subjects in alphabetical order
Mixing different topics or problem types within a single study session (Correct answer)
Taking breaks between subjects

Correct answer: Mixing different topics or problem types within a single study session

Interleaving improves learning by requiring the brain to continuously retrieve different strategies, enhancing discrimination between concepts and boosting transfer.

Question 61: Which letter continues the series? B, D, F, H, ___

L
J (Correct answer)
I
K

Correct answer: J

Each letter skips one position in the alphabet (even-position letters), so H is followed by J.

Question 62: Which of the following describes an isotonic muscle contraction?

Muscle tension stays the same while length changes (Correct answer)
No movement occurs at either the joint or muscle
Muscle contracts and relaxes simultaneously
Muscle length stays the same while tension changes

Correct answer: Muscle tension stays the same while length changes

Isotonic contractions occur when muscle tension remains constant while the muscle changes length, as seen in lifting a fixed weight.

Question 63: What is the purpose of a topic sentence?

To summarize the entire essay
To repeat the thesis
To introduce the main idea of a paragraph and guide the reader (Correct answer)
To provide a conclusion

Correct answer: To introduce the main idea of a paragraph and guide the reader

Each body paragraph's topic sentence states the paragraph's central point, connecting to the overall thesis and previewing the evidence to follow.

Question 64: Which geographic region of the spine has the greatest degree of rotation?

Sacral spine
Cervical spine (Correct answer)
Lumbar spine
Thoracic spine

Correct answer: Cervical spine

The cervical spine allows the greatest range of rotation (approximately 80-90°) compared to thoracic and lumbar regions.

Question 65: Which sentence demonstrates correct parallel structure?

The patient needs to stretch, to strengthen, and to walk. (Correct answer)
The patient needs stretching, strengthening, and to walk.
The patient needs to stretch, strengthening, and walk.
The patient needs stretching, to strengthen, and walking.

Correct answer: The patient needs to stretch, to strengthen, and to walk.

Parallel structure requires using the same grammatical form for each item in a series (to stretch, to strengthen, to walk).

Question 66: Which of the following describes a negative feedback loop?

A response that amplifies the original stimulus
A pathway with no regulatory endpoint
A response that opposes and reduces the original stimulus (Correct answer)
A cycle that continuously increases body temperature

Correct answer: A response that opposes and reduces the original stimulus

Negative feedback opposes the initial stimulus to restore homeostasis, as seen in thermoregulation when sweating cools an overheated body.

Question 67: In the context of muscle physiology, what is the 'all-or-none principle'?

The entire muscle group activates before a single fiber contracts
All muscle fibers in a muscle contract simultaneously at maximum force
A muscle either contracts maximally or not at all when stimulated above threshold
A muscle fiber either produces full tension or no tension when stimulated above its threshold (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A muscle fiber either produces full tension or no tension when stimulated above its threshold

The all-or-none principle states that a single muscle fiber, when stimulated above its threshold, produces its maximal contraction — it cannot produce a partial response.

Question 68: Which sentence has correct pronoun-antecedent agreement for a gender-neutral singular subject?

Every therapist must complete their documentation.
Every therapist must complete it's documentation.
Every therapist must complete his or her documentation.
Both A and B are acceptable in modern usage. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Both A and B are acceptable in modern usage.

Both singular 'their' and 'his or her' are accepted ways to handle gender-neutral singular pronouns in contemporary American English.

Question 69: The concept of 'health equity' in current public health policy means:

Therapy session lengths must be equal for all insured patients
Healthcare costs are distributed equally among all U.S. citizens through taxation
Every person has a fair opportunity to attain their highest level of health (Correct answer)
All patients receive identical treatment protocols regardless of their condition

Correct answer: Every person has a fair opportunity to attain their highest level of health

Health equity means removing systemic barriers so that every person, regardless of race, income, or geography, has an equal opportunity to be as healthy as possible.

Question 70: A policy document states: 'Physical therapist assistants may perform interventions delegated by a supervising physical therapist. The PTA may not perform evaluations, establish diagnoses, or determine prognosis.' According to this document, which task is within the PTA's scope?

Determining the patient's rehabilitation prognosis
Carrying out delegated therapeutic interventions (Correct answer)
Establishing a physical therapy diagnosis
Performing an initial patient evaluation

Correct answer: Carrying out delegated therapeutic interventions

The document permits PTAs to perform interventions delegated by the supervising PT, while reserving evaluation and diagnosis for the PT.

Question 71: The Great Depression of the 1930s was triggered largely by which major event in 1929?

World War I ending
Bank robberies
Stock market crash (Correct answer)
A major drought

Correct answer: Stock market crash

The Great Depression was triggered primarily by the stock market crash of October 1929, known as 'Black Tuesday,' which led to widespread bank failures and unemployment.

Question 72: What does the 'sensitivity' of a clinical test BEST describe?

The ability to correctly identify patients who do NOT have the condition
The overall diagnostic accuracy of the test
The ability to correctly identify patients who DO have the condition (Correct answer)
The reproducibility of the test across different raters

Correct answer: The ability to correctly identify patients who DO have the condition

Sensitivity measures the proportion of true positives correctly identified; a highly sensitive test rarely misses the condition.

Question 73: A PTA walks 1.5 miles each way to work, 5 days a week. How many miles does she walk commuting over 4 weeks?

60 miles (Correct answer)
75 miles
45 miles
30 miles

Correct answer: 60 miles

1.5 miles × 2 directions × 5 days × 4 weeks = 60 miles.

Question 74: The concept of 'implicit bias' in current healthcare and civics education refers to:

Unconscious attitudes or stereotypes that can affect clinical decisions and patient interactions (Correct answer)
Documented, intentional discrimination against a protected patient population
Bias introduced into research studies due to flawed experimental design
A legally actionable form of workplace discrimination under Title VII

Correct answer: Unconscious attitudes or stereotypes that can affect clinical decisions and patient interactions

Implicit bias refers to unconscious attitudes shaped by societal factors that can unintentionally affect how clinicians interact with and treat patients from different backgrounds.

Question 75: Which explorers' voyages to the Americas beginning in 1492 are often credited with initiating sustained contact between Europe and the Americas?

Amerigo Vespucci
Christopher Columbus (Correct answer)
Ferdinand Magellan
Vasco da Gama

Correct answer: Christopher Columbus

Christopher Columbus's 1492 voyage, funded by Spain, established sustained European contact with the Americas, though Indigenous peoples had lived there for thousands of years.

Question 76: Which resource is most appropriate for a PTA student who wants evidence-based guidance on effective study strategies for health professions education?

Course syllabi from previous years
Peer-reviewed journals on educational psychology such as 'Psychological Science in the Public Interest' (Correct answer)
Informal tips from classmates who passed the NPTE
Social media tutoring groups

Correct answer: Peer-reviewed journals on educational psychology such as 'Psychological Science in the Public Interest'

Peer-reviewed educational psychology literature provides empirically validated techniques rather than anecdotal study advice.

Question 77: The Magna Carta, signed in 1215, is historically significant because it limited the power of the king and established the principle of what?

Free trade
Religious freedom
Rule of law (Correct answer)
Universal suffrage

Correct answer: Rule of law

The Magna Carta established that the king was subject to the rule of law and not above it, laying a foundation for constitutional governance and individual rights.

Question 78: A PTA suspects a patient may be experiencing domestic abuse. The MOST appropriate action is to:

Report concerns to the supervising PT and follow mandatory reporting requirements (Correct answer)
Confront the suspected abuser during the next visit
Ignore the situation as it falls outside the PTA's scope of practice
Ask the patient directly and document their denial

Correct answer: Report concerns to the supervising PT and follow mandatory reporting requirements

PTAs are mandated reporters in most states; suspected abuse must be reported through the supervising PT and appropriate authorities.

Question 79: What is the purpose of the United Nations?

To promote international cooperation, peace, security, and human rights among member nations (Correct answer)
To create a single world government
To govern the world
Only to conduct wars

Correct answer: To promote international cooperation, peace, security, and human rights among member nations

The UN was established after WWII to prevent future conflicts through diplomacy, promote human rights, provide humanitarian aid, and foster international cooperation.

Question 80: A passage describes: 'The SOAP note format organizes clinical documentation into four sections: Subjective data reported by the patient, Objective measurable findings, Assessment of the patient's condition, and Plan for treatment.' According to this passage, where would a therapist record a patient's pain rating?

Objective section
Plan section
Subjective section (Correct answer)
Assessment section

Correct answer: Subjective section

A pain rating is reported by the patient, placing it in the Subjective section of the SOAP note.

Question 81: What is DNA?

A blood cell
Deoxyribonucleic acid — the molecule that carries genetic instructions for life (Correct answer)
A vitamin
A type of protein

Correct answer: Deoxyribonucleic acid — the molecule that carries genetic instructions for life

DNA is the hereditary material containing the genetic blueprint for building and maintaining organisms, structured as a double helix.

Question 82: A passage states: 'Therapeutic ultrasound delivers acoustic energy to tissue, producing thermal and non-thermal effects. Thermal effects increase tissue extensibility and metabolic rate, while non-thermal effects include cavitation and acoustic streaming.' According to this passage, which of the following is a NON-thermal effect of ultrasound?

Greater tissue extensibility
Increased metabolic rate
Elevated tissue temperature
Acoustic streaming (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Acoustic streaming

The passage explicitly lists cavitation and acoustic streaming as non-thermal effects.

Question 83: A passage about gait states: 'During the stance phase of normal gait, the gluteus medius contracts eccentrically to prevent contralateral pelvic drop. Weakness of this muscle produces a Trendelenburg gait pattern.' If a patient has left gluteus medius weakness, what would the clinician likely observe?

The patient cannot flex the left hip
The right pelvis drops during left stance phase
The left pelvis drops during right stance phase (Correct answer)
The patient displays a steppage gait pattern

Correct answer: The left pelvis drops during right stance phase

Left gluteus medius weakness means the left hip cannot prevent the contralateral (right) pelvis from dropping during left stance.

Question 84: In human anatomy, the sagittal plane divides the body into:

Anterior and posterior halves
Left and right portions (Correct answer)
Superior and inferior halves
Medial and lateral segments

Correct answer: Left and right portions

The sagittal plane runs vertically front-to-back, dividing the body into left and right portions.

Question 85: Which branch of the U.S. government has the power to create new federal healthcare legislation such as the ACA?

Legislative branch (Correct answer)
Executive branch
Administrative branch
Judicial branch

Correct answer: Legislative branch

Article I of the Constitution grants the legislative branch (Congress) the power to create federal laws, including healthcare legislation.

Question 86: What is the Pythagorean theorem?

The area equals base times height
a + b = c for all triangles
All triangle sides are equal
In a right triangle, a² + b² = c², where c is the hypotenuse (Correct answer)

Correct answer: In a right triangle, a² + b² = c², where c is the hypotenuse

The Pythagorean theorem states that in a right triangle, the square of the hypotenuse equals the sum of the squares of the other two sides.

Question 87: What is the Electoral College?

A congressional committee
A type of university
The system by which the President is formally elected through electors chosen by each state (Correct answer)
A direct popular vote system

Correct answer: The system by which the President is formally elected through electors chosen by each state

The Electoral College allocates electors to states based on their congressional representation, with the candidate receiving 270+ electoral votes winning the presidency.

Question 88: How should you manage time during a test?

Spend equal time on every question regardless of difficulty
Save all time for the last few questions
Work only on questions you are sure about
Preview the entire test, allocate time per section, and monitor progress throughout (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Preview the entire test, allocate time per section, and monitor progress throughout

Time management involves previewing the test structure, budgeting time by section, and adjusting pace to ensure all questions are attempted.

Question 89: Which word requires capitalization in clinical documentation?

The name of a generic body part like 'knee' or 'shoulder'
An eponymous condition such as 'Parkinson's disease' (Correct answer)
The word 'patient' in the middle of a sentence
The word 'therapy' when used in a general sense

Correct answer: An eponymous condition such as 'Parkinson's disease'

Named (eponymous) conditions like Parkinson's disease are capitalized because they derive from a proper noun (a person's name).

Question 90: Which molecule serves as the immediate energy currency used by cells to perform work?

Fatty acid
ATP (adenosine triphosphate) (Correct answer)
NADH
Glucose

Correct answer: ATP (adenosine triphosphate)

ATP is the direct energy currency of the cell; hydrolysis of its terminal phosphate bond releases energy to power biological processes.

Question 91: What is climate vs. weather?

Weather never changes
They mean the same thing
Climate changes daily
Climate is the long-term pattern of weather in an area; weather is the day-to-day atmospheric conditions (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Climate is the long-term pattern of weather in an area; weather is the day-to-day atmospheric conditions

Weather describes short-term atmospheric conditions (today's temperature and rain), while climate describes the average weather patterns over decades.

Question 92: When writing patient education materials, which statement about medical jargon is correct?

Medical jargon should always be used to maintain clinical accuracy.
Medical jargon should be avoided or explained in plain language for patients. (Correct answer)
Medical jargon is required in all healthcare-related documents.
Medical jargon is preferred over plain language for legal protection.

Correct answer: Medical jargon should be avoided or explained in plain language for patients.

Patient education materials should use plain language or define medical terms to ensure patient comprehension and health literacy.

Question 93: A frequency table shows: Red=15, Blue=25, Green=10. What fraction of responses chose Blue?

1/3
5/12
1/4
1/2 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 1/2

Total = 15 + 25 + 10 = 50; Blue fraction = 25/50 = 1/2.

Question 94: Which federal law mandates that eligible employees can take up to 12 weeks of unpaid leave for medical reasons without losing their job?

HIPAA
ADA
FMLA (Correct answer)
COBRA

Correct answer: FMLA

The Family and Medical Leave Act (FMLA) guarantees eligible employees up to 12 weeks of unpaid, job-protected leave per year for qualifying medical or family reasons.

Question 95: Which body system is primarily responsible for regulating blood pH?

Lymphatic system
Skeletal system
Integumentary system
Renal and respiratory systems (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Renal and respiratory systems

The kidneys regulate bicarbonate excretion and the lungs control CO₂ levels, together maintaining blood pH near 7.4.

Question 96: When a test-taker spends too long on a difficult question during a timed PTA exam, the BEST strategy is to:

Ask the proctor for clarification on the clinical terms
Skip all remaining difficult questions and focus only on easy ones
Mark it and return after completing easier questions first (Correct answer)
Stay on the question until certain of the correct answer

Correct answer: Mark it and return after completing easier questions first

Flagging and returning to difficult questions preserves time for questions where you can confidently earn points.

Question 97: What is the difference between inference and direct statement?

Inference requires reading between the lines using clues; direct statements are explicitly written (Correct answer)
They are the same thing
Inferences are always wrong
Direct statements are never on tests

Correct answer: Inference requires reading between the lines using clues; direct statements are explicitly written

Direct statements are explicitly written in the text, while inferences require combining textual clues with prior knowledge to reach conclusions not directly stated.

Question 98: Which of the following best describes interprofessional collaboration (IPC) as promoted in current healthcare policy?

Practicing physical therapy services across multiple states under a single license
PTAs practicing independently without PT supervision to reduce costs
Multiple healthcare professionals working together across disciplines to improve patient outcomes (Correct answer)
Sharing patient billing records with insurance companies to streamline claims

Correct answer: Multiple healthcare professionals working together across disciplines to improve patient outcomes

IPC involves professionals such as PTAs, PTs, nurses, and physicians working as a coordinated team to provide comprehensive, patient-centered care.

Question 99: A patient's pulse pressure is 45 mmHg and their diastolic pressure is 75 mmHg. What is their systolic pressure?

125 mmHg
130 mmHg
120 mmHg (Correct answer)
110 mmHg

Correct answer: 120 mmHg

Pulse pressure = systolic − diastolic; 45 + 75 = 120 mmHg.

Question 100: A patient reports performing home exercises consistently but shows no functional improvement. The BEST critical thinking approach for the PTA is to:

Tell the patient to exercise more intensely on their own
Assume the patient is being dishonest about their compliance
Assess exercise technique and report the lack of progress to the supervising PT (Correct answer)
Increase supervised sessions without informing the PT

Correct answer: Assess exercise technique and report the lack of progress to the supervising PT

Lack of expected progress warrants an assessment of contributing factors and communication with the supervising PT to consider plan revisions.

Practice Tests Academy (PTA) General Aptitude Assessment

The Practice Tests Academy (PTA) general aptitude assessment evaluates a broad range of academic and analytical skills including history, social studies, logic puzzles, data interpretation, mathematics, reading comprehension, vocabulary, and general knowledge. It is designed to measure overall cognitive aptitude and academic preparedness.

100

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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Exam Rules

You can skip questions and return to them later
Flag questions for review before submitting
No feedback shown until you submit the entire exam
Unanswered questions count as wrong — answer everything
10 pretest questions are mixed in and don't affect your score
Timer auto-submits when time runs out
Your progress is auto-saved every 30 seconds