Abnormal Psychology and DSM Flashcards
6 cards from real Psychology Degree practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 6 Abnormal Psychology and DSM flashcards as text
A client describes an overwhelming need to check the locks on their doors and windows multiple times before leaving the house. They report intrusive, persistent thoughts that a break-in will occur if they fail to do so. The client recognizes this behavior is excessive and it causes them significant daily distress and tardiness. According to the DSM-5-TR, which diagnosis is most appropriate?
Answer: Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder
The client's presentation includes both obsessions (recurrent, intrusive thoughts about a break-in) and compulsions (repetitive checking behaviors) performed to reduce anxiety. These symptoms are time-consuming and cause significant distress, which are the core diagnostic criteria for Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD).
One of the most significant structural changes introduced in the DSM-5, which departed from the format of the DSM-IV-TR, was the:
Answer: removal of the multiaxial assessment system.
The DSM-5 eliminated the multiaxial system (Axes I, II, III, IV, and V) that was used in the DSM-IV-TR. This was a major structural change, moving to a nonaxial system that combines the former Axes I, II, and III and lists psychosocial and contextual factors separately.
Which of the following is the primary feature that distinguishes a diagnosis of Bipolar I Disorder from Bipolar II Disorder?
Answer: The experience of at least one full manic episode.
The defining criterion for Bipolar I Disorder is the presence of at least one manic episode, which involves a period of abnormally and persistently elevated mood and energy, causing significant impairment. Bipolar II Disorder is characterized by at least one hypomanic episode (less severe than mania) and at least one major depressive episode. A full manic episode is the key differentiator.
Which of the following is classified as a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
Answer: Avolition
Negative symptoms of schizophrenia reflect a decrease or absence of normal functions. Avolition is a decrease in motivated, self-initiated, and purposeful activities. Hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech are considered positive symptoms, as they represent an excess or distortion of normal functions.
The diathesis-stress model is a prominent framework for explaining the etiology of psychological disorders. Within this model, the 'diathesis' component refers to a(n):
Answer: underlying vulnerability or predisposition.
In the diathesis-stress model, the 'diathesis' is an underlying predisposition or vulnerability (e.g., genetic, biological, or psychological) that increases the risk of developing a disorder. The disorder is then typically triggered by a 'stress' component, which is an environmental or life stressor.
A 30-year-old individual reports experiencing several unexpected episodes of intense fear over the last three months. During these episodes, they experience a pounding heart, shortness of breath, and a sense of impending doom. As a result, they are now persistently worried about having another episode and have begun to avoid going to the gym, fearing an attack might occur there. Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?
Answer: Panic Disorder
The diagnosis of Panic Disorder requires recurrent, unexpected panic attacks, followed by at least one month of persistent concern about additional attacks or their consequences, and/or a significant maladaptive change in behavior (avoidance) related to the attacks. This case describes all these core features.