PSP Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield PSP facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which of the following is an example of a physical barrier used in asset protection? → Fence
2. What does OSDP (Open Supervised Device Protocol) provide that legacy Wiegand does NOT? → Encrypted, bidirectional communication between reader and controller
3. What camera resolution is generally recommended for reliable facial identification in a video surveillance system according to ASIS and IPVM guidelines? → 100 pixels per foot (PPF) or higher
4. Which vehicle barrier is classified as a 'passive' anti-ram barrier? → Concrete jersey barriers
5. Which approach best addresses the protection of intellectual property in a physical security context? → Controlling physical access to areas where sensitive information is processed and stored
6. In an alarm system, what does a 'supervisory circuit' monitor? → The integrity of wiring and sensors to detect tampering or sabotage
7. Under the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA) and US privacy law, which area is generally PROHIBITED for video surveillance installation in a workplace? → Restrooms and changing rooms
8. What is the recommended approach for managing firmware and software updates on networked security devices? → Test updates in a staging environment before deploying to production security systems
9. In CPTED (Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design), what principle is applied when using low-height landscaping near building windows and entrances? → Natural surveillance
10. Which document should be the foundation of any organizational asset protection program? → A comprehensive asset protection policy approved by senior management
11. The Incident Command System (ICS) recommends that no supervisor have more than how many personnel reporting directly to them? → 5 to 7
12. What is residual risk in the context of physical security planning? → The level of risk remaining after all planned security countermeasures have been applied
13. What is the purpose of a vulnerability assessment in risk management? → To identify weaknesses that could be exploited by threats
14. In access control, what does the term 'two-person integrity rule' require? → Two authorized individuals must be present to access a sensitive area
15. According to CPTED principles, what is the recommended maximum height for foundation plantings (shrubs) near building entry points? → 4 feet (1.2m) maximum
16. How often should access control systems be tested for functionality? → Monthly
17. What CPTED concept involves designing spaces so that legitimate users naturally observe and informally supervise the area through their normal activities? → Natural surveillance
18. Which metric is most useful for measuring the effectiveness of an asset protection program? → Shrinkage rate or loss percentage over time
19. What is the primary purpose of conducting routine inspections of security equipment? → To identify and fix potential issues before they cause failures
20. The principle of 'shelter-in-place' is MOST appropriate in which scenario? → A hazardous material release occurs outside the facility
21. Which IDS sensor is specifically designed to detect an attempt to break through walls, floors, or ceilings rather than entering through doors or windows? → Seismic/vibration sensor
22. Which document captures the detailed objectives, tactics, and resource assignments for managing a specific incident during its operational period? → Incident Action Plan (IAP)
23. According to ASIS International standards, how often should emergency response plans be formally reviewed and updated? → At least annually or whenever significant changes occur
24. Which access control system architecture processes authentication decisions at the door-level hardware rather than a central server? → Distributed (edge) access control
25. What should be done if a security alarm system repeatedly triggers false alarms? → Schedule a maintenance check to diagnose and fix the issue
26. What is the primary advantage of integrating security systems with building management systems (BMS)? → Improved coordination between security and facility operations
27. Why is regular maintenance of physical security systems essential? → To prevent system failures and ensure continuous protection
28. What is the minimum recommended video retention period for a general commercial facility's CCTV system under most US security best-practice guidelines? → 30 days
29. How often should emergency backup power systems for security equipment be tested under load? → Monthly under load with annual full-duration testing
30. In a CPTED second-generation (2nd Gen) assessment, what factor is evaluated in addition to the physical design elements assessed in 1st Gen CPTED? → Social dynamics, community cohesion, and the human behavioral dimension of space use