Physician Assistant Flashcards
7 cards from real Physician Assistant practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Physician Assistant flashcards as text
A 68-year-old woman with osteoporosis is started on alendronate. Which instruction is most important to give her?
Answer: Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking it
Bisphosphonates like alendronate must be taken on an empty stomach with water and the patient must remain upright for at least 30 minutes to prevent esophageal irritation and ulceration.
A 40-year-old male presents with acute monoarthritis of the first MTP joint, redness, warmth, and severe pain that started overnight. Serum uric acid is 9.2 mg/dL. What is the best initial treatment for acute gout?
Answer: Colchicine or NSAIDs
The acute gout attack is treated with anti-inflammatory agents such as colchicine, NSAIDs, or corticosteroids; urate-lowering agents like allopurinol are not initiated during acute attacks.
Which of the following findings is most consistent with cardiac tamponade?
Answer: Beck's triad: hypotension, distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds
Beck's triad (hypotension, jugular venous distension, and muffled heart sounds) is the classic presentation of cardiac tamponade caused by pericardial fluid compressing the heart.
A 55-year-old male presents with progressive bilateral lower extremity weakness, fasciculations, hyperreflexia, and bulbar symptoms. There is no sensory deficit. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)
ALS is characterized by combined upper and lower motor neuron findings (hyperreflexia + fasciculations) with bulbar involvement and absence of sensory deficits.
A PA has reasonable suspicion that a patient is being abused by a caregiver. Which of the following is the most appropriate action?
Answer: File a mandatory report with Adult Protective Services or child protective services
PAs are mandatory reporters in all US states; suspected abuse must be reported to the appropriate protective services, and failure to report is a legal and ethical violation.
A 32-year-old woman at 36 weeks gestation presents with severe headache, visual disturbances, and BP of 162/110 mmHg. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. What is the definitive treatment?
Answer: Delivery of the fetus
Delivery is the only definitive treatment for preeclampsia with severe features; at 36 weeks gestation, the risks of continuing the pregnancy outweigh those of delivery.
Which of the following findings on spirometry is most consistent with obstructive lung disease such as COPD?
Answer: FEV1 decreased, FVC normal or decreased, FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.70
Obstructive disease is defined by a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio < 0.70, reflecting airflow limitation with air trapping causing a disproportionate reduction in FEV1.