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Physician Assistant Flashcards

7 cards from real Physician Assistant practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 35-year-old female presents with weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, and dry skin. TSH is elevated and free T4 is low. What is the most appropriate treatment?

    Answer: Levothyroxine

    Elevated TSH with low free T4 indicates primary hypothyroidism, treated with levothyroxine (synthetic T4) replacement therapy.

  2. Which maneuver is used to diagnose benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)?

    Answer: Dix-Hallpike maneuver

    The Dix-Hallpike maneuver repositions the head to provoke nystagmus and vertigo, confirming the diagnosis of BPPV involving the posterior semicircular canal.

  3. A 70-year-old male with a history of atrial fibrillation is found unresponsive with right-sided weakness. CT head shows no hemorrhage. What is the most appropriate immediate intervention?

    Answer: IV alteplase (tPA)

    In the absence of contraindications and within the therapeutic window, IV alteplase (tPA) is the standard of care for acute ischemic stroke.

  4. A newborn is noted to have a continuous 'machine-like' murmur at the left upper sternal border. What is the most likely congenital heart defect?

    Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus

    A continuous machine-like murmur at the left upper sternal border is pathognomonic for patent ductus arteriosus (PDA).

  5. Which of the following lab findings is most consistent with iron deficiency anemia?

    Answer: Low ferritin, elevated TIBC, microcytic RBCs

    Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by low ferritin (depleted stores), elevated TIBC (the body compensates by upregulating transferrin), and microcytic, hypochromic RBCs.

  6. A PA is treating a patient with major depressive disorder who has failed two adequate SSRI trials. What is the most appropriate next step?

    Answer: Switch to an SNRI or augment with bupropion

    After two failed SSRI trials, switching to a different class (SNRI) or augmentation strategies such as adding bupropion or an atypical antipsychotic are evidence-based next steps.

  7. A 52-year-old woman presents with urinary frequency, urgency, and dysuria. Urinalysis shows pyuria and bacteriuria. Which organism is the most common cause of uncomplicated urinary tract infections in women?

    Answer: Escherichia coli

    Escherichia coli accounts for approximately 80–85% of uncomplicated urinary tract infections in women due to its virulence factors that facilitate uroepithelial adherence.