Gastrointestinal and Nutrition Flashcards
7 cards from real Physician Assistant practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Gastrointestinal and Nutrition flashcards as text
A 55-year-old obese man with a history of Barrett's esophagus undergoes surveillance endoscopy showing high-grade dysplasia. What is the most appropriate management?
Answer: Endoscopic eradication therapy or esophagectomy
High-grade dysplasia in Barrett's esophagus carries significant risk of progression to adenocarcinoma and requires endoscopic eradication or surgical resection.
Which finding is most consistent with acute mesenteric ischemia?
Answer: Pain out of proportion to physical examination findings
Acute mesenteric ischemia classically presents with severe abdominal pain that is disproportionately worse than the relatively benign physical exam findings early in the course.
A 40-year-old woman presents with episodic right upper quadrant pain after fatty meals, lasting 30–60 minutes. Ultrasound shows gallstones but no bile duct dilation. What is this condition called?
Answer: Biliary colic
Biliary colic is transient RUQ pain caused by temporary gallstone obstruction of the cystic duct, without sustained inflammation or infection.
Which test is the gold standard for diagnosing H. pylori infection in a patient who has not recently taken PPIs or antibiotics?
Answer: Upper endoscopy with biopsy
Upper endoscopy with biopsy allows direct visualization and multiple testing methods (urease test, culture, histology), making it the gold standard for H. pylori diagnosis.
A patient with short bowel syndrome following extensive small intestine resection is at highest risk for which type of kidney stones?
Answer: Calcium oxalate stones
Fat malabsorption in short bowel syndrome increases free oxalate absorption (enteric hyperoxaluria), predisposing to calcium oxalate nephrolithiasis.
A 28-year-old woman with known Crohn's disease presents with perianal fistulas and abscesses that have not responded to antibiotics. Which biologic agent is most appropriate?
Answer: Infliximab
Infliximab (anti-TNF-α) is FDA-approved specifically for fistulizing Crohn's disease and has demonstrated efficacy in closing perianal fistulas.
A malnourished patient who is started on aggressive refeeding develops hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, and hypomagnesemia. What syndrome does this represent?
Answer: Refeeding syndrome
Refeeding syndrome occurs when rapid introduction of carbohydrates drives intracellular shifts of electrolytes in malnourished patients, causing dangerous deficiencies.