Endocrine System Disorders Flashcards
7 cards from real Physician Assistant practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Endocrine System Disorders flashcards as text
A 40-year-old woman presents with moon facies, central obesity, purple striae, and easy bruising. 24-hour urinary free cortisol is markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Cushing's syndrome
Cushing's syndrome results from chronic excess cortisol and presents with moon facies, buffalo hump, purple striae, and central obesity.
Which of the following is the most common overall cause of Cushing's syndrome?
Answer: Exogenous corticosteroid use
Exogenous corticosteroid use is the most common cause of Cushing's syndrome overall, making it iatrogenic in most cases.
A 35-year-old woman presents with weakness, fatigue, hyperpigmentation, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia. Cortisol is low and ACTH is markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Addison's disease
Addison's disease (primary adrenal insufficiency) features elevated ACTH causing hyperpigmentation, with low cortisol, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia.
A 45-year-old man has resistant hypertension despite three antihypertensives and persistent hypokalemia. The aldosterone-to-renin ratio is markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism (Conn's syndrome)
Primary hyperaldosteronism causes autonomous aldosterone excess, resulting in resistant hypertension, hypokalemia, and an elevated aldosterone-to-renin ratio.
A 30-year-old woman presents with galactorrhea, amenorrhea, and bitemporal headaches. MRI shows a pituitary mass and prolactin is 160 ng/mL. What is the first-line treatment?
Answer: Dopamine agonist (cabergoline or bromocriptine)
Dopamine agonists are the first-line treatment for prolactinomas, as they suppress prolactin secretion and reduce tumor size.
Which of the following is the most appropriate initial biochemical test to screen for pheochromocytoma?
Answer: Plasma free metanephrines or 24-hour urine fractionated metanephrines
Plasma free metanephrines or 24-hour urine fractionated metanephrines are the preferred biochemical tests for screening pheochromocytoma due to high sensitivity.
A 35-year-old man presents with coarse facial features, enlarged hands and feet, headaches, and bitemporal hemianopsia. IGF-1 is markedly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Acromegaly
Acromegaly is caused by excess GH after epiphyseal closure, leading to coarse acral features and elevated IGF-1; a pituitary tumor causes the visual field defect.