COPR Primary Care Paramedic (PCP) Entry to Practice Examination — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Which of the following best describes a drug's 'half-life'?

Time from administration to onset of action
Time for the body to eliminate 50% of the drug (Correct answer)
Time for the drug to reach peak concentration
Duration of the drug's therapeutic effect

Correct answer: Time for the body to eliminate 50% of the drug

Half-life is the time required for the plasma concentration of a drug to decrease by 50%.

Question 2: A patient with a suspected cervical spine injury needs airway management. Which technique is preferred?

Head-tilt chin-lift
Hyperextension of the neck
Jaw thrust maneuver (Correct answer)
Flexion of the neck

Correct answer: Jaw thrust maneuver

The jaw thrust maneuver opens the airway while maintaining spinal alignment in suspected cervical spine injuries.

Question 3: After a normal delivery, the umbilical cord should be clamped and cut:

Immediately after the baby is delivered
After the placenta delivers
After the baby takes its first breath and pulsations in the cord slow or stop (Correct answer)
Only if the newborn is not breathing

Correct answer: After the baby takes its first breath and pulsations in the cord slow or stop

Delayed cord clamping (after pulsations slow) is recommended to allow placental blood transfer to the newborn.

Question 4: When approaching a helicopter landing zone (LZ), EMS personnel should approach from which direction?

From any direction at a crouching walk
From the front or side as directed by the pilot (Correct answer)
From behind the tail rotor
Approach only after the rotor has stopped

Correct answer: From the front or side as directed by the pilot

Personnel must approach from the front or side as directed by the pilot or crew, never from the rear where the lethal tail rotor is located.

Question 5: What is the adult dose of epinephrine 1:1000 for anaphylaxis?

3.0 mg IM
1.0 mg IM
0.3–0.5 mg IM (Correct answer)
0.1 mg IM

Correct answer: 0.3–0.5 mg IM

The adult dose for anaphylaxis is 0.3–0.5 mg of epinephrine 1:1000 injected IM into the anterolateral thigh.

Question 6: What is the correct order of priorities in the primary survey for trauma patients?

Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure (Correct answer)
Circulation, Airway, Breathing, Disability, Exposure
Disability, Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Exposure
Breathing, Circulation, Airway, Disability, Exposure

Correct answer: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure

The primary survey follows the ABCDE sequence: Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure.

Question 7: A patient you are treating has just lost consciousness. What is the first thing you should do?

Obtain the patient's vitals.
Open the patient's airway. (Correct answer)
Assess the patient's breathing.
Do a physical exam.

Correct answer: Open the patient's airway.

Explanation: When a patient loses consciousness, the first action should be to open the airway to ensure that the patient can breathe effectively. This involves techniques such as head tilt-chin lift or jaw thrust to position the airway correctly and allow for adequate airflow. Once the airway is open, assessing the patient's breathing can follow to determine if further interventions are necessary.

Question 8: A sucking chest wound should be treated by:

Leaving open to allow air equalization
Applying an occlusive dressing sealed on all four sides
Applying an occlusive dressing vented on one side (Correct answer)
Packing the wound with gauze

Correct answer: Applying an occlusive dressing vented on one side

A vented (three-sided) occlusive dressing allows air to escape on exhalation, preventing tension pneumothorax.

Question 9: What is the purpose of a medical incident command post (MCI CP) during a mass casualty event?

To coordinate triage, treatment, and transport of patients (Correct answer)
To communicate directly with insurance companies
To treat the most critical patients on-site
To provide medical direction to hospital staff

Correct answer: To coordinate triage, treatment, and transport of patients

The medical incident command post coordinates all patient care activities — triage, treatment, and transport — to organize the EMS response.

Question 10: Which of the following is NOT a part of the upper airway?

The nasopharynx
The carina (Correct answer)
The oropharynx
The pharynx

Correct answer: The carina

Explanation: The carina is not part of the upper airway; it is the point at which the trachea divides into the right and left main bronchi in the lower respiratory system. The upper airway includes structures such as the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and pharynx, which are located above the carina in the respiratory tract.

Question 11: A prolapsed umbilical cord is managed prehospital by:

Clamping and cutting the cord immediately
Placing the patient in high Fowler's position
Elevating the presenting part off the cord and rapid transport (Correct answer)
Pushing the cord back into the uterus

Correct answer: Elevating the presenting part off the cord and rapid transport

Manually elevate the presenting fetal part to relieve cord compression, place the patient in knee-chest or Trendelenburg position, and transport rapidly.

Question 12: Which START triage category is assigned to a patient who is not breathing even after the airway is repositioned?

Red (immediate)
Yellow (delayed)
Green (minor)
Black (expectant/deceased) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Black (expectant/deceased)

In START triage, a patient who does not breathe after a simple airway maneuver is tagged Black (expectant/deceased) and no further resources are allocated.

Question 13: A 2-year-old has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths per minute. This is:

Normal for this age (Correct answer)
Bradypnea
A sign of respiratory failure
Significant tachypnea

Correct answer: Normal for this age

Normal respiratory rate for a 2-year-old is 24–40 breaths per minute, so 30 is within normal limits.

Question 14: Febrile seizures in children are most commonly associated with:

Rapidly rising body temperature (Correct answer)
Meningitis
Prolonged high fever over 48 hours
Epilepsy

Correct answer: Rapidly rising body temperature

Simple febrile seizures are triggered by rapid temperature rises, not necessarily very high temperatures.

Question 15: What is the first step you should take when you start to size up a scene?

Do a Body Substance Isolation (BSI). (Correct answer)
Determine the safety of the scene.
Determine the mechanism of injury.
Find out how many patients you need to treat.

Correct answer: Do a Body Substance Isolation (BSI).

Explanation: While ensuring scene safety is critical, so is protecting oneself from potential exposure to infectious materials. Before engaging further, paramedics should prioritize their safety by donning appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE), such as gloves, goggles, and masks, to prevent contact with bodily fluids or other hazardous substances.

Question 16: What minimum personal protective equipment (PPE) is recommended for EMS providers when treating a patient with suspected tuberculosis?

Standard precautions only (gloves)
Powered air-purifying respirator (PAPR)
Surgical mask and gloves
N95 respirator, gloves, and eye protection (Correct answer)

Correct answer: N95 respirator, gloves, and eye protection

OSHA and CDC guidelines require at minimum an N95 respirator, gloves, and eye protection for airborne precautions such as suspected TB.

Question 17: Which of the following best describes sinus bradycardia on an ECG?

Wide QRS at rate of 40 bpm with no P waves
Rate >100 bpm, narrow QRS, no P waves
Rate <60 bpm, regular rhythm, normal P-QRS relationship (Correct answer)
Rate <60 bpm, irregular rhythm, normal P waves and QRS

Correct answer: Rate <60 bpm, regular rhythm, normal P-QRS relationship

Sinus bradycardia is a rate <60 bpm with a normal regular P-QRS-T pattern, originating from the sinoatrial node.

Question 18: What is the recommended tidal volume for BVM ventilation in an adult?

200–400 mL
800–1000 mL
1200–1500 mL
500–600 mL (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 500–600 mL

The recommended tidal volume for adult BVM ventilation is 500–600 mL, delivered over 1 second.

Question 19: What is the correct compression-to-ventilation ratio for two-rescuer infant CPR?

30:1
15:2 (Correct answer)
5:1
30:2

Correct answer: 15:2

Two-rescuer infant CPR uses a 15:2 ratio, allowing more frequent ventilations given the respiratory etiology of most pediatric arrests.

Question 20: Which term describes the process of identifying and ranking hazards at an emergency scene before committing resources?

Scene size-up (Correct answer)
Triage
Risk-benefit analysis
Situational awareness

Correct answer: Scene size-up

Scene size-up is the systematic evaluation of an emergency scene to identify hazards, determine resource needs, and plan the approach.

Question 21: Which of the following is the first step you should take in treating a medical patient?

Determine the patient's signs and symptoms. (Correct answer)
Ask about the patient's pertinent medical history.
Determine if the patient has any allergies.
Find out what medications the patient is taking.

Correct answer: Determine the patient's signs and symptoms.

Explanation: Identifying the patient's signs and symptoms is the initial step in assessing their condition. This information helps paramedics understand the nature and severity of the medical issue, guiding further treatment decisions and interventions.

Question 22: When transporting a critical patient, what should the paramedic do if the receiving hospital is on diversion?

Bypass the hospital without notification
Use clinical judgment and medical direction to determine the most appropriate destination (Correct answer)
Always honor the diversion and go to the next closest hospital
Wait on scene until diversion is lifted

Correct answer: Use clinical judgment and medical direction to determine the most appropriate destination

EMS providers should use clinical judgment in consultation with medical direction to select the most appropriate facility, which may override diversion for critical patients.

Question 23: During a water rescue, a paramedic without specialized water rescue training should follow which principle?

Wait for police to authorize entry
Reach, throw, row, then go (Correct answer)
Attempt a swimming rescue with a partner
Go immediately to save the victim

Correct answer: Reach, throw, row, then go

The reach-throw-row-go sequence prioritizes rescuer safety, reserving in-water rescue only for trained specialists as a last resort.

Question 24: Which of the following is the MOST reliable indicator of internal abdominal hemorrhage in trauma?

Abdominal distension with hemodynamic instability (Correct answer)
Bruising of the abdomen
Nausea and vomiting
Patient-reported abdominal pain

Correct answer: Abdominal distension with hemodynamic instability

Abdominal distension combined with hemodynamic instability strongly suggests significant internal hemorrhage requiring urgent surgical intervention.

Question 25: Which of the following is NOT considered a part of the patient's Signs and Symptoms?

Behavioral issues
Environmental emergencies
The patient's last oral intake (Correct answer)
Obstetrical conditions

Correct answer: The patient's last oral intake

Explanation: The patient's last oral intake is not typically considered a part of the signs and symptoms. Signs and symptoms refer to observable or measurable indications of a patient's condition, such as vital signs, physical findings, complaints, and behaviors. Last oral intake, while important for certain assessments (e.g., assessing for dehydration), is more related to history-taking rather than immediate signs and symptoms.

Question 26: Which of the following medications is used prehospital to prevent eclamptic seizures?

Phenytoin
Diazepam
Lorazepam
Magnesium sulfate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Magnesium sulfate

Magnesium sulfate is the drug of choice for prophylaxis and treatment of eclamptic seizures.

Question 27: What is the third step of conducting an initial assessment?

Identify the patient's chief complaints or any life-threatening conditions. (Correct answer)
Assess the patient's circulation.
Assess the patient's airway and breathing.
Determine the patient's level of consciousness.

Correct answer: Identify the patient's chief complaints or any life-threatening conditions.

Explanation: The third step of conducting an initial assessment is to identify the patient's chief complaints or any life-threatening conditions. This step helps prioritize care by focusing on addressing immediate threats to the patient's life or well-being. Once identified, appropriate interventions can be initiated to stabilize the patient's condition.

Question 28: Which action is MOST important when documenting a patient care report (PCR) after an emergency call?

Provide an accurate, objective, and timely account of assessment and care (Correct answer)
Document only the treatments that were successful
Omit sensitive information to protect patient privacy
Include personal opinions about patient behavior

Correct answer: Provide an accurate, objective, and timely account of assessment and care

The PCR must be accurate, objective, and completed promptly to support continuity of care, quality assurance, and legal documentation.

Question 29: Which airway adjunct is most appropriate for an unconscious adult patient with no gag reflex?

Nasal cannula
Bag-valve-mask only
Oropharyngeal airway (Correct answer)
Nasopharyngeal airway

Correct answer: Oropharyngeal airway

An oropharyngeal airway (OPA) is indicated for unconscious patients without a gag reflex to maintain airway patency.

COPR Primary Care Paramedic (PCP) Entry to Practice Examination

The COPR PCP Entry to Practice Examination assesses the knowledge and clinical competencies required for safe, entry-level Primary Care Paramedic practice in Canada, based on the National Occupational Competency Profile (NOCP) for Paramedics.

200

Questions

240 min

Time Limit

70%

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