PCC Risk Assessment & Mitigation 3 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which risk analysis technique gathers expert opinions anonymously in iterative rounds to reach consensus?
- Brainstorming
- Delphi Technique (Correct answer)
- Interviewing
- Root Cause Analysis
Correct answer: Delphi Technique
The Delphi Technique uses anonymous questionnaires sent to experts in multiple rounds, reducing bias and groupthink.
Question 2: A risk response that involves changing the project plan to eliminate a threat entirely is called:
- Mitigate
- Accept
- Avoid (Correct answer)
- Exploit
Correct answer: Avoid
Risk avoidance involves altering project objectives, scope, schedule, or approach to eliminate the threat completely.
Question 3: What does the 'S-curve' on a cumulative risk exposure chart typically indicate when it flattens at the top?
- Project risks are increasing rapidly
- Most known risks have been addressed and residual risk is stable (Correct answer)
- The project is over budget
- New risks are being identified daily
Correct answer: Most known risks have been addressed and residual risk is stable
A flattening S-curve suggests that risk identification and mitigation efforts have captured the majority of project risk, leaving only stable residual exposure.
Question 4: Which schedule risk metric measures the ratio of earned value to planned value and signals schedule performance?
- Cost Performance Index (CPI)
- Schedule Performance Index (SPI) (Correct answer)
- To-Complete Performance Index (TCPI)
- Budget at Completion (BAC)
Correct answer: Schedule Performance Index (SPI)
SPI = EV / PV; a value below 1.0 indicates the project is behind schedule and may signal schedule risk.
Question 5: In risk management, what is a 'trigger' (also called a risk symptom)?
- The root cause of a risk event
- An early warning sign that a risk is about to occur (Correct answer)
- The maximum possible loss from a risk
- A contractual clause activating insurance
Correct answer: An early warning sign that a risk is about to occur
A trigger is an observable condition or event that signals that a risk is imminent or has occurred, prompting a response.
Question 6: When applying the risk response strategy of 'enhance,' the project team is trying to:
- Reduce the probability of a negative risk
- Increase the probability or impact of a positive risk (Correct answer)
- Transfer a positive risk to a third party
- Accept both threats and opportunities passively
Correct answer: Increase the probability or impact of a positive risk
Enhancement is an opportunity response strategy that seeks to increase the likelihood or benefit of a positive risk event.
Question 7: A contingency reserve in a project budget is best described as:
- Funds set aside for known unknowns identified through risk analysis (Correct answer)
- Executive discretionary funds for unplanned scope changes
- A budget buffer for vendor price escalation only
- Reserve held for post-project warranty work
Correct answer: Funds set aside for known unknowns identified through risk analysis
Contingency reserves address known risks (known unknowns) identified in risk analysis, while management reserves cover unknown unknowns.
Which risk analysis technique gathers expert opinions anonymously in iterative rounds to reach consensus?