PANRE Orthopedics 4

Question 1

A 60-year-old male presents with progressive low back pain radiating to both legs with walking, relieved by sitting or bending forward. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Spinal stenosis

Answer

Lumbar spinal stenosis causes neurogenic claudication — bilateral leg pain worsened by extension (standing/walking) and relieved by flexion (sitting/leaning forward).

Question 2

Which of the following fractures requires urgent surgical intervention due to risk of compartment syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Tibial shaft fracture

Answer

Tibial shaft fractures have the highest risk of compartment syndrome due to the tight compartments in the leg and the energy required to fracture this bone.

Question 3

A 45-year-old female presents with morning stiffness lasting more than 1 hour, symmetric joint swelling, and a positive rheumatoid factor. Which joint pattern is most characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?

Accepted Answer

PIP and MCP joints of the hands

Answer

Rheumatoid arthritis characteristically involves the PIP and MCP joints symmetrically, sparing the DIP joints (which are more typical of osteoarthritis or psoriatic arthritis).

Question 4

A 17-year-old male complains of hip pain and a limp. X-ray shows the femoral head appearing to 'slip' posterior and inferior off the femoral neck. What is the diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

Answer

Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) typically presents in obese adolescent males with hip or knee pain and a limp, requiring urgent surgical pinning.

Question 5

Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a non-displaced clavicle fracture?

Accepted Answer

Sling immobilization for 4–6 weeks

Answer

Non-displaced clavicle fractures are managed non-operatively with a simple sling for 4–6 weeks; figure-of-eight braces offer no advantage and are less comfortable.

PANRE Test Practice Test

PANRE Test Practice Test

PANRE Orthopedics 4