A 25-year-old woman presents with 7 weeks of amenorrhea, left lower quadrant pain, and vaginal spotting. Serum hCG is 2,200 mIU/mL and transvaginal ultrasound shows no intrauterine gestational sac. She is hemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate management?
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A
Expectant management
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B
Dilation and curettage
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C
Methotrexate 50 mg/m² IM
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D
Laparoscopic salpingectomy