PANRE Flashcards
7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 PANRE flashcards as text
A 50-year-old man with a history of alcohol use disorder presents with confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Which treatment should be given immediately?
Answer: Thiamine 100 mg IV
The classic triad of confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia is Wernicke encephalopathy; thiamine must be given before glucose to prevent worsening.
A 40-year-old woman presents with fatigue, constipation, weight gain, and cold intolerance. TSH is 12 mIU/L and free T4 is low. Which treatment is indicated?
Answer: Levothyroxine
Primary hypothyroidism (elevated TSH, low free T4) is treated with levothyroxine replacement therapy.
A 66-year-old woman presents with sudden painless vision loss in one eye described as a 'curtain coming down.' Fundoscopy shows a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the macula. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Central retinal artery occlusion presents with sudden painless vision loss, pale ischemic retina, and a cherry-red spot at the fovea due to preserved choroidal circulation.
A 55-year-old man with rheumatoid arthritis on methotrexate develops a macrocytic anemia. Which supplementation is most appropriate?
Answer: Folate
Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, causing folate deficiency; supplemental folic acid is given to mitigate this side effect.
A 32-year-old woman presents with recurrent unprovoked DVTs. Labs show a prolonged aPTT that does not correct on mixing study. Which condition is most likely?
Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
A prolonged aPTT that fails to correct on mixing study suggests an inhibitor (antibody), most consistent with lupus anticoagulant in antiphospholipid syndrome.
A 7-year-old boy develops periorbital edema, hypoalbuminemia, massive proteinuria (>3.5 g/day), and hypercholesterolemia. Which diagnosis best fits?
Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
The tetrad of massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, edema, and hyperlipidemia defines nephrotic syndrome; minimal change disease is the most common cause in children.
A 24-year-old woman presents with a painful, swollen right knee and right wrist after returning from a camping trip. She also has a scattered papulopustular rash on her arms. Which organism is most likely responsible?
Answer: Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Disseminated gonococcal infection classically presents with migratory polyarthritis, tenosynovitis, and dermatitis (papulopustular lesions) in sexually active young adults.