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Orthopedics Flashcards

7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Orthopedics flashcards as text

  1. A 60-year-old male presents with progressive low back pain radiating to both legs with walking, relieved by sitting or bending forward. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Spinal stenosis

    Lumbar spinal stenosis causes neurogenic claudication — bilateral leg pain worsened by extension (standing/walking) and relieved by flexion (sitting/leaning forward).

  2. Which of the following fractures requires urgent surgical intervention due to risk of compartment syndrome?

    Answer: Tibial shaft fracture

    Tibial shaft fractures have the highest risk of compartment syndrome due to the tight compartments in the leg and the energy required to fracture this bone.

  3. A 45-year-old female presents with morning stiffness lasting more than 1 hour, symmetric joint swelling, and a positive rheumatoid factor. Which joint pattern is most characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?

    Answer: PIP and MCP joints of the hands

    Rheumatoid arthritis characteristically involves the PIP and MCP joints symmetrically, sparing the DIP joints (which are more typical of osteoarthritis or psoriatic arthritis).

  4. A 17-year-old male complains of hip pain and a limp. X-ray shows the femoral head appearing to 'slip' posterior and inferior off the femoral neck. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Slipped capital femoral epiphysis

    Slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE) typically presents in obese adolescent males with hip or knee pain and a limp, requiring urgent surgical pinning.

  5. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial treatment for a non-displaced clavicle fracture?

    Answer: Sling immobilization for 4–6 weeks

    Non-displaced clavicle fractures are managed non-operatively with a simple sling for 4–6 weeks; figure-of-eight braces offer no advantage and are less comfortable.

  6. A 55-year-old male with a history of prostate cancer presents with severe low back pain. Plain radiograph shows mixed lytic and blastic lesions of the lumbar vertebrae. What is the most likely etiology?

    Answer: Metastatic prostate cancer

    Prostate cancer metastases classically produce mixed lytic and blastic lesions (predominantly blastic) in the axial skeleton.

  7. A patient presents 24 hours after an ankle sprain with significant swelling and inability to bear weight. The Ottawa Ankle Rules indicate X-ray is needed when there is tenderness at which location?

    Answer: Posterior edge of the distal 6 cm of the fibula or tibia

    Ottawa Ankle Rules require X-ray if there is tenderness over the posterior edge of the distal 6 cm of the fibula or tibia, or at the navicular or base of the fifth metatarsal.