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Obstetrics and Gynecology Flashcards

7 cards from real PANRE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Obstetrics and Gynecology flashcards as text

  1. A 38-year-old G3P2 at 36 weeks presents with severe headache, visual disturbances, and BP 158/106 mmHg. Her 24-hour urine protein is 450 mg. What is the definitive treatment?

    Answer: Magnesium sulfate and deliver

    Severe preeclampsia at 36 weeks requires delivery (the only cure) along with magnesium sulfate for seizure prophylaxis and antihypertensives.

  2. A 22-year-old woman presents with mucopurulent cervical discharge, cervical motion tenderness, and uterine tenderness. What empiric treatment regimen is recommended by CDC guidelines?

    Answer: Ceftriaxone 500mg IM plus doxycycline 100mg BID for 14 days

    CDC guidelines for outpatient PID recommend ceftriaxone (for gonorrhea) plus doxycycline with or without metronidazole to cover chlamydia and anaerobes.

  3. A 45-year-old woman undergoes LEEP for CIN 2. Pathology returns with CIN 2 and negative margins. What is the recommended follow-up?

    Answer: Co-testing (HPV + cytology) at 1 and 2 years post-treatment

    After excisional treatment of CIN 2-3 with negative margins, co-testing at 1 and 2 years is recommended before returning to routine screening.

  4. A 33-year-old woman at 16 weeks gestation has a serum alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) of 3.2 MOM. What is the most appropriate next step?

    Answer: Targeted ultrasound to evaluate for neural tube defects and other causes

    Elevated maternal serum AFP (≥2.5 MOM) warrants targeted ultrasound to evaluate for open neural tube defects, abdominal wall defects, or dating error.

  5. A 29-year-old primigravida at 41+2 weeks is in active labor. She has an epidural and has been completely dilated for 3.5 hours with no fetal descent despite adequate pushing. Fetal station is 0. What is this called?

    Answer: Arrest of descent

    Arrest of descent is diagnosed when the fetal presenting part fails to descend after a defined period of pushing in the second stage of labor.

  6. A breastfeeding mother 6 weeks postpartum desires contraception. Which method is contraindicated?

    Answer: Combined oral contraceptive pill

    Combined oral contraceptives (estrogen + progestin) are contraindicated in the first 6 weeks postpartum in breastfeeding women due to estrogen's suppression of milk production.

  7. A 55-year-old postmenopausal woman with an intact uterus wants hormone therapy for vasomotor symptoms. What regimen must be prescribed?

    Answer: Combined estrogen plus progestin

    Women with an intact uterus must receive combined estrogen plus progestin therapy; unopposed estrogen increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and carcinoma.