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Reproductive System Flashcards

7 cards from real PANCE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 72-year-old man has a PSA of 18 ng/mL. Prostate biopsy shows Gleason score 4+4=8 in 8 of 12 cores. Bone scan shows no metastases. Which treatment is most appropriate?

    Answer: Radical prostatectomy or radiation with androgen deprivation therapy

    High-risk localized prostate cancer (Gleason ≥8, PSA >20, or clinical T3) requires definitive local therapy (surgery or radiation) combined with androgen deprivation therapy.

  2. A 23-year-old woman presents with 3 months of secondary amenorrhea, galactorrhea, and headache. MRI shows a 12 mm pituitary mass. What is first-line treatment?

    Answer: Bromocriptine or cabergoline

    Dopamine agonists (cabergoline preferred over bromocriptine) are first-line treatment for prolactinomas regardless of size, effectively normalizing prolactin and reducing tumor size.

  3. A 19-year-old sexually active woman is diagnosed with her second episode of chlamydial cervicitis within 6 months. Her partner was treated after the first episode. What additional step is most critical now?

    Answer: Test for HIV and other STIs

    Repeat STI infections increase risk of HIV and other sexually transmitted infections, making comprehensive STI testing including HIV essential at this visit.

  4. A laboring patient at 8 cm dilation has a Category III fetal heart rate tracing (sinusoidal pattern). What is the immediate next step?

    Answer: Prepare for emergent cesarean delivery

    A sinusoidal fetal heart rate pattern is a Category III (abnormal) tracing indicating severe fetal compromise requiring emergent cesarean delivery.

  5. A 48-year-old woman presents with hot flashes, vaginal dryness, and irregular menses for 8 months. FSH is 62 mIU/mL. She has no uterus. Which hormone replacement is appropriate?

    Answer: Estrogen-only therapy

    Women without a uterus require estrogen-only hormone therapy; adding progestin is unnecessary and provides no benefit since endometrial protection is not needed.

  6. A 30-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation is found to have a complete hydatidiform mole on ultrasound with a 'snowstorm' appearance. After suction curettage, what is the most important follow-up?

    Answer: Serial serum hCG monitoring until undetectable

    Serial serum hCG monitoring is mandatory after molar evacuation to detect persistent gestational trophoblastic neoplasia, which occurs in ~15-20% of complete moles.

  7. A 26-year-old woman with no prenatal care delivers a term infant. The neonate develops purulent conjunctivitis at 5 days of life. Gram stain shows intracellular gram-negative diplococci. What is the treatment?

    Answer: IV ceftriaxone

    Neonatal gonococcal ophthalmia (caused by N. gonorrhoeae presenting at 2-5 days) requires IV ceftriaxone because topical therapy alone is insufficient for this serious infection.