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Reproductive System Flashcards

7 cards from real PANCE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 26-year-old woman at 32 weeks gestation develops sudden onset severe headache, visual disturbances, and BP 158/106 mmHg. Urinalysis shows 3+ proteinuria. Which complication must be urgently assessed?

    Answer: HELLP syndrome

    The combination of preeclampsia symptoms with severe features warrants urgent CBC, LFTs, and LDH to rule out HELLP syndrome (Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets).

  2. A 17-year-old female presents with primary amenorrhea, no breast development, and streak gonads on ultrasound. Karyotype is 45,X. Which associated cardiac defect must be screened for?

    Answer: Bicuspid aortic valve and coarctation of the aorta

    Turner syndrome (45,X) is associated with bicuspid aortic valve in ~30% and coarctation of the aorta in ~10% of patients, requiring cardiac screening.

  3. A 45-year-old woman presents with menorrhagia and pelvic pressure. Uterus is 14-week size on exam. Ultrasound shows multiple intramural masses. What is the most appropriate first-line pharmacologic treatment?

    Answer: Levonorgestrel IUD

    The levonorgestrel IUD (Mirena) is first-line pharmacologic therapy for fibroid-related menorrhagia, reducing bleeding by up to 90%.

  4. A 22-year-old sexually active woman has a positive urine hCG. Transvaginal ultrasound shows no intrauterine gestational sac, and serum hCG is 2,400 mIU/mL. What is the most appropriate next step?

    Answer: Repeat hCG in 48 hours

    With hCG below the discriminatory zone (~3,000 mIU/mL), no intrauterine sac is expected; repeat hCG in 48 hours assesses rise pattern to distinguish ectopic from early intrauterine pregnancy.

  5. A 60-year-old man presents with gynecomastia, small firm testes, and infertility. Karyotype reveals 47,XXY. Which hormone pattern is expected?

    Answer: Elevated FSH and LH, low testosterone

    Klinefelter syndrome causes primary testicular failure with elevated gonadotropins (FSH, LH) due to absent feedback, and low testosterone.

  6. A 33-year-old woman presents with cyclic mastalgia, nipple discharge, and palpable breast nodularity that varies with her menstrual cycle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Fibrocystic breast changes

    Fibrocystic breast changes are the most common benign breast condition, characterized by cyclic pain, nodularity, and cyst formation that fluctuates with the menstrual cycle.

  7. A 29-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks is found to have Rh-negative blood type. Her partner is Rh-positive. What is the correct management?

    Answer: Administer Rh immunoglobulin at 28 weeks and within 72 hours postpartum if infant is Rh-positive

    Standard protocol is Rh immunoglobulin at 28 weeks gestation and again within 72 hours of delivery if the neonate is Rh-positive to prevent isoimmunization.