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Reproductive System Flashcards

7 cards from real PANCE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 28-year-old woman presents with cyclic pelvic pain, dyspareunia, and infertility. Laparoscopy reveals powder-burn lesions on the peritoneum. Which mechanism best explains her infertility?

    Answer: Distorted pelvic anatomy and inflammatory cytokines impairing implantation

    Endometriosis causes infertility through distorted pelvic anatomy, peritoneal inflammation, and cytokine-mediated impairment of fertilization and implantation.

  2. A 35-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks gestation presents with painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Fetal heart tones are reassuring. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Placenta previa

    Painless bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester is the hallmark of placenta previa, where the placenta overlies the cervical os.

  3. A 19-year-old male presents with a painless testicular mass. Serum AFP is markedly elevated. Which tumor type is most likely?

    Answer: Yolk sac tumor

    Yolk sac tumors (endodermal sinus tumors) are the most common testicular tumor in young males and are associated with markedly elevated AFP.

  4. A 52-year-old postmenopausal woman is found to have a unilocular, thin-walled 4 cm ovarian cyst on transvaginal ultrasound. CA-125 is normal. What is the most appropriate next step?

    Answer: Repeat ultrasound in 6-12 weeks

    A simple unilocular cyst ≤5 cm with normal CA-125 in a postmenopausal woman warrants surveillance with repeat ultrasound in 6-12 weeks per ACOG guidelines.

  5. A 24-year-old woman on combined oral contraceptives for 3 years presents for a routine visit. Which absolute contraindication should prompt you to discontinue her OCP?

    Answer: History of migraine with aura

    Migraine with aura is an absolute contraindication to combined estrogen-containing contraceptives due to increased risk of ischemic stroke.

  6. A 38-year-old woman is diagnosed with BRCA1 mutation. She has completed childbearing. Which risk-reduction strategy has the greatest absolute reduction in ovarian cancer risk?

    Answer: Risk-reducing bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

    Risk-reducing bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy reduces ovarian cancer risk by >95% in BRCA1 carriers and is the most effective prevention strategy.

  7. A 31-year-old man and his partner have been trying to conceive for 18 months. Semen analysis shows count 8 million/mL, motility 25%, normal morphology 3%. Which condition should be excluded first?

    Answer: Varicocele

    Varicocele is the most common correctable cause of male infertility and should be the first diagnosis excluded with scrotal ultrasound and physical exam.