PANCE Hematology Flashcards
6 cards from real PANCE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 6 PANCE Hematology flashcards as text
A patient with recurrent DVT has a prolonged aPTT that does not correct with a 1:1 mixing study. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Failure to correct on mixing study indicates an inhibitor; lupus anticoagulant in antiphospholipid syndrome is the most common cause.
A 52-year-old has splenomegaly, WBC of 85,000 with basophilia, and a Philadelphia chromosome on cytogenetics. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Chronic myelogenous leukemia
CML is characterized by the BCR-ABL fusion gene (Philadelphia chromosome t(9;22)) and presents with leukocytosis, basophilia, and splenomegaly.
A patient with multiple myeloma develops worsening renal function. Which renal complication is most directly caused by light chain deposition in tubules?
Answer: Cast nephropathy
Bence-Jones proteins (free light chains) precipitate in renal tubules, causing tubular injury and cast nephropathy (myeloma kidney).
What is the first-line treatment for newly diagnosed warm autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Answer: Corticosteroids
Corticosteroids suppress autoantibody production and are the initial treatment of choice for warm AIHA.
Which finding on osmotic fragility testing is most characteristic of hereditary spherocytosis?
Answer: Increased osmotic fragility
Spherocytes lack the normal biconcave disc shape, causing increased osmotic fragility as they lyse more easily in hypotonic solutions.
A patient on heparin for 7 days develops a platelet count drop from 240,000 to 55,000 and a new lower extremity DVT. What is the diagnosis?
Answer: Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia
HIT occurs when antibodies form against the heparin-PF4 complex, paradoxically causing platelet activation and thrombosis despite low platelet counts.