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PANCE Evaluation Flashcards

7 cards from real PANCE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 PANCE Evaluation flashcards as text

  1. A 3-year-old child presents with a barking cough, inspiratory stridor, and low-grade fever. Neck X-ray shows a 'steeple sign.' What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Viral croup (laryngotracheobronchitis)

    Viral croup causes subglottic narrowing visible as the steeple sign on AP neck X-ray, with characteristic barking cough and inspiratory stridor.

  2. A 48-year-old male presents with sudden severe 'thunderclap' headache described as the worst of his life. CT head is negative. What is the next most appropriate step?

    Answer: Perform lumbar puncture to detect xanthochromia

    A negative CT does not rule out subarachnoid hemorrhage; lumbar puncture detecting xanthochromia is required to exclude SAH when CT is negative.

  3. A 32-year-old woman presents with pleuritic chest pain, malar rash, oral ulcers, and arthralgias. Lab work shows anti-dsDNA antibodies and low complement (C3/C4). What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

    SLE is characterized by malar rash, oral ulcers, serositis (pleuritis), arthritis, and positive anti-dsDNA with low complement levels.

  4. A 70-year-old male smoker presents with a 3-cm solitary pulmonary nodule found incidentally on chest X-ray. What characteristic would MOST suggest a benign lesion?

    Answer: Popcorn calcification pattern

    Popcorn calcification is characteristic of pulmonary hamartoma and is a reliable benign pattern, along with central, laminated, or diffuse calcification.

  5. A 25-year-old male presents with urethral discharge and dysuria. Gram stain shows gram-negative intracellular diplococci. Which antibiotic regimen is currently recommended by CDC guidelines?

    Answer: Ceftriaxone 500mg IM single dose plus doxycycline 100mg twice daily for 7 days

    Current CDC guidelines recommend ceftriaxone 500 mg IM (or 1g if weight ≥150 kg) plus doxycycline (if chlamydia not excluded) for uncomplicated gonorrhea.

  6. A 60-year-old woman presents with progressive difficulty climbing stairs and rising from a chair over 4 months, with proximal muscle weakness but no muscle pain. CK is mildly elevated. Which antibody is associated with dermatomyositis?

    Answer: Anti-Mi-2

    Anti-Mi-2 antibodies are highly specific for dermatomyositis (classic DM) and correlate with a good response to treatment.

  7. A newborn is found to have bilious vomiting on day 2 of life. X-ray shows a 'double bubble' sign. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Duodenal atresia

    Duodenal atresia produces the classic double bubble sign (distended stomach and proximal duodenum) and presents with bilious vomiting in the first 24-48 hours.