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PANCE Flashcards

7 cards from real PANCE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. A 3-year-old boy is brought in for evaluation of a painless scrotal mass. Transillumination is positive. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Hydrocele

    A hydrocele is a fluid-filled sac around the testis that transilluminates and is typically painless in young children.

  2. A 68-year-old woman presents with progressive proximal muscle weakness, difficulty rising from a chair, and a heliotrope rash. CK is markedly elevated. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Dermatomyositis

    Dermatomyositis presents with proximal muscle weakness, elevated CK, and characteristic skin findings including the heliotrope rash.

  3. A 25-year-old male presents with painless enlargement of the right testis. Ultrasound shows a solid intratesticular mass. AFP is elevated. What is the most likely tumor type?

    Answer: Yolk sac tumor

    Non-seminomatous germ cell tumors (yolk sac tumor) produce AFP; seminomas do not, making AFP elevation characteristic of non-seminomatous tumors.

  4. A 40-year-old female presents with fatigue, constipation, and cold intolerance. TSH is 12 µIU/mL, free T4 is low. Anti-TPO antibodies are elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Hashimoto thyroiditis

    Hashimoto thyroiditis is autoimmune hypothyroidism characterized by elevated TSH, low T4, and positive anti-TPO antibodies.

  5. An 8-year-old child develops facial edema and frothy urine. Urinalysis shows 4+ protein. Serum albumin is 1.8 g/dL. No hematuria or hypertension. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Nephrotic syndrome — minimal change disease

    Minimal change disease is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in children, presenting with massive proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, and edema without hematuria.

  6. A 55-year-old male with alcoholism presents with confusion, ophthalmoplegia, and ataxia. What is the immediate treatment?

    Answer: Thiamine IV before glucose

    Wernicke encephalopathy requires IV thiamine before glucose to prevent precipitation or worsening of the syndrome in thiamine-deficient patients.

  7. A 60-year-old male smoker presents with a persistent cough, hemoptysis, and a 4 cm hilar mass on CXR. Biopsy shows small dark cells with nuclear molding and necrosis. What is the cell type?

    Answer: Small cell lung cancer

    Small cell lung cancer (SCLC) is a neuroendocrine tumor with characteristic small dark cells, nuclear molding, and central/hilar location strongly associated with smoking.