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Musculoskeletal Flashcards

7 cards from real PANCE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Musculoskeletal flashcards as text

  1. A 55-year-old woman presents with bilateral knee pain worsened by climbing stairs and improved with rest. X-ray shows joint space narrowing and osteophytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Osteoarthritis

    Osteoarthritis presents with pain worsened by activity, relieved by rest, and X-ray findings of joint space narrowing, subchondral sclerosis, and osteophytes.

  2. A 25-year-old male presents after a fall on an outstretched hand with anatomical snuffbox tenderness. X-ray is negative. What is the next best step?

    Answer: MRI or CT scan of the wrist

    Anatomical snuffbox tenderness suggests scaphoid fracture; MRI or CT is needed when X-ray is negative because scaphoid fractures can be occult and risk avascular necrosis if untreated.

  3. A 40-year-old male with gout has his second attack in 6 months. Serum uric acid is 9.2 mg/dL. He tolerates NSAIDs well. What is the most appropriate long-term management?

    Answer: Allopurinol therapy

    Allopurinol, a xanthine oxidase inhibitor, is indicated for urate-lowering therapy in patients with recurrent gout attacks to prevent future episodes.

  4. A 70-year-old woman with osteoporosis fractures her vertebra after minor trauma. DEXA scan shows T-score of -2.8. Which medication reduces both vertebral and hip fracture risk?

    Answer: Alendronate

    Bisphosphonates like alendronate reduce both vertebral and non-vertebral (including hip) fracture risk and are first-line treatment for osteoporosis.

  5. A 35-year-old runner presents with pain at the inferior pole of the patella that worsens with jumping. No effusion is present. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Patellar tendinopathy

    Patellar tendinopathy (jumper's knee) presents with focal tenderness at the inferior patellar pole, exacerbated by jumping and resisted knee extension.

  6. A 60-year-old man presents with symmetric morning stiffness lasting over 1 hour, swelling of MCPs and PIPs, and positive anti-CCP antibodies. What is the first-line DMARD therapy?

    Answer: Methotrexate

    Methotrexate is the anchor DMARD for rheumatoid arthritis due to its efficacy, tolerability, and long track record.

  7. A 14-year-old male presents with knee pain and a tender tibial tubercle that is worse with activity. No joint effusion. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Osgood-Schlatter disease

    Osgood-Schlatter disease is a traction apophysitis of the tibial tubercle in adolescents during growth spurts, presenting with localized tenderness and swelling.