EENT Flashcards
7 cards from real PANCE practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 EENT flashcards as text
A 45-year-old patient presents with sudden painless vision loss in one eye described as a 'curtain coming down.' Fundoscopic exam reveals a pale retina with a cherry-red spot at the macula. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion
Central retinal artery occlusion presents with sudden painless monocular vision loss, pale retina with cherry-red macula due to ischemia from loss of blood supply.
A 7-year-old is brought in for a school screening failure. Exam reveals the left eye deviates outward when the right eye fixates. The child has no diplopia. What is the most appropriate initial management?
Answer: Referral to ophthalmology for evaluation
Exotropia in a child requires ophthalmology referral to assess for amblyopia and determine the need for patching, glasses, or surgery.
A 60-year-old with poorly controlled diabetes presents with right-sided facial pain, purulent nasal discharge, and black necrotic tissue visible in the nasal cavity. CT shows bony erosion of the turbinates. What organism is most likely responsible?
Answer: Mucor species
Mucormycosis (rhino-orbital-cerebral) is a life-threatening fungal infection in diabetics and immunocompromised patients, causing black necrotic tissue and bony invasion.
A 30-year-old presents with recurrent episodes of severe unilateral eye pain, redness, and halos around lights. Each episode lasts 2-3 hours and resolves spontaneously. IOP during an attack is 45 mmHg. What is the treatment of choice for long-term prevention?
Answer: Laser peripheral iridotomy
Laser peripheral iridotomy creates an opening in the iris to relieve pupillary block and prevent recurrent acute angle-closure glaucoma attacks.
A 55-year-old presents with progressive bilateral sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, and episodic vertigo lasting 20 minutes to several hours. Audiometry shows low-frequency hearing loss. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Ménière's disease
Ménière's disease is characterized by the triad of episodic vertigo, fluctuating sensorineural hearing loss (initially low-frequency), and tinnitus due to endolymphatic hydrops.
A 3-year-old presents with high fever, drooling, muffled voice, and refusal to open the mouth. Examination shows medial displacement of the tonsil and uvular deviation. What is the most appropriate next step?
Answer: Immediate needle aspiration or incision and drainage
A peritonsillar abscess with airway compromise requires immediate aspiration or incision and drainage along with IV antibiotics to relieve the abscess.
A 25-year-old presents with sudden severe headache, photophobia, and vision loss in the right eye. Slit-lamp exam shows cells and flare in the anterior chamber. Fundoscopic exam is limited by haze but shows disc hyperemia. What condition should be suspected?
Answer: Uveitis (anterior and posterior)
Panuveitis (anterior and posterior uveitis) presents with anterior chamber cells/flare, vitreous haze, and disc changes requiring urgent ophthalmologic evaluation.