PALS Certification Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A new team member is unsure about their role during resuscitation. Who is PRIMARILY responsible for clarifying role assignments?

The bedside nurse
The most experienced team member
The team leader (Correct answer)
The charge nurse

Correct answer: The team leader

The team leader is responsible for ensuring all team members understand their assigned roles before and during resuscitation.

Question 2: During systematic assessment of a 4-year-old with suspected increased intracranial pressure, which pupillary finding is most concerning?

Sluggish bilateral pupil response
Equal and reactive pupils bilaterally
Unilateral fixed and dilated pupil (Correct answer)
Pinpoint pupils bilaterally

Correct answer: Unilateral fixed and dilated pupil

A unilateral fixed and dilated pupil (blown pupil) suggests uncal herniation from unilateral mass effect or severe ICP elevation.

Question 3: In a child with obstructive shock from tension pneumothorax, what is the definitive treatment?

Endotracheal intubation alone
Synchronized cardioversion
Needle decompression followed by chest tube thoracostomy (Correct answer)
IV fluid bolus of 20 mL/kg

Correct answer: Needle decompression followed by chest tube thoracostomy

Tension pneumothorax causing obstructive shock requires immediate needle decompression followed by chest tube placement to relieve the obstruction.

Question 4: In pediatric tachycardia assessment, what does the PALS algorithm define as the primary distinction between 'stable' and 'unstable' tachycardia?

Heart rate above or below 200 bpm
Narrow versus wide QRS complex duration
Patient's age and weight
Presence or absence of signs of cardiopulmonary compromise (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Presence or absence of signs of cardiopulmonary compromise

PALS classifies tachycardia as unstable when there are signs of cardiopulmonary compromise such as poor perfusion, hypotension, or altered mental status.

Question 5: Which hemodynamic pattern is characteristic of hypovolemic shock?

Low CO, low SVR
High CO, low SVR
Low CO, high SVR (Correct answer)
High CO, high SVR

Correct answer: Low CO, high SVR

Hypovolemic shock causes reduced preload, leading to low cardiac output and compensatory increased systemic vascular resistance.

Question 6: Which oxygen delivery device provides the highest concentration of supplemental oxygen to a spontaneously breathing child in respiratory distress?

Partial rebreather mask at 6 L/min
Simple face mask at 8 L/min
Nasal cannula at 4 L/min
Non-rebreather mask at 10–15 L/min (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Non-rebreather mask at 10–15 L/min

A non-rebreather mask with flow rates of 10–15 L/min can deliver oxygen concentrations up to 90–95% by preventing exhaled gas from diluting the oxygen supply.

Question 7: An infant presents with a heart rate of 280 bpm, pallor, and cool extremities. Which finding would MOST indicate SVT over sinus tachycardia?

Recent history of fever and vomiting
Heart rate that decreases with crying
Absent P-waves with retrograde conduction on ECG (Correct answer)
Gradual onset over 30 minutes

Correct answer: Absent P-waves with retrograde conduction on ECG

Absent or retrograde P-waves are characteristic of SVT, whereas sinus tachycardia always shows normal P-waves preceding each QRS.

Question 8: A 5-year-old with SVT remains stable. Vagal maneuvers and two doses of adenosine have failed. What is the next recommended treatment?

Defibrillation at 2 J/kg
Epinephrine infusion
Adenosine 0.3 mg/kg IV
Synchronized cardioversion at 1 J/kg with sedation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Synchronized cardioversion at 1 J/kg with sedation

After two failed adenosine doses, synchronized cardioversion with sedation is the next step for SVT even if still stable.

Question 9: A 7-year-old with epiglottitis requires airway management. Which approach is safest?

Perform blind nasotracheal intubation
Allow the child to remain calm and transport to OR for controlled intubation (Correct answer)
Immediate RSI in the ED
Insert an NPA immediately

Correct answer: Allow the child to remain calm and transport to OR for controlled intubation

Epiglottitis management prioritizes keeping the child calm and performing intubation in a controlled OR setting with ENT backup to avoid sudden complete obstruction.

Question 10: During bag-mask ventilation, you notice the child's chest is not rising. After repositioning the head and ensuring a proper mask seal, there is still no rise. What is the next step?

Check for and relieve airway obstruction with a jaw thrust (Correct answer)
Increase bag compression force significantly
Switch to a larger mask immediately
Proceed directly to intubation

Correct answer: Check for and relieve airway obstruction with a jaw thrust

If repositioning and mask seal fail to produce chest rise, a jaw thrust to open the airway is the next maneuver before escalating to a more invasive airway.

Question 11: During a resuscitation, the team identifies the pediatric patient's bradycardia is caused by increased vagal tone from suctioning. Which drug is most appropriate?

Lidocaine
Amiodarone
Epinephrine
Atropine (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Atropine

Atropine is the drug of choice for vagally mediated bradycardia because it blocks parasympathetic (vagal) tone.

Question 12: When should the rhythm check occur during the PALS cardiac arrest algorithm?

Only after medication administration
Every 5 minutes
Every 2 minutes after each CPR cycle (Correct answer)
Every 1 minute

Correct answer: Every 2 minutes after each CPR cycle

Rhythm checks should occur every 2 minutes, coinciding with the end of each CPR cycle to minimize interruptions.

Question 13: A team is resuscitating a 15 kg child. The team leader, under stress, orders a 1 mg dose of epinephrine. The medication provider recognizes this is an adult dose and states, "That seems like a high dose for a child. The correct dose is 0.15 mg. Should I draw up 0.15 mg?" This action best demonstrates:

Constructive Intervention (Correct answer)
Knowledge Sharing
Insubordination
Closed-loop communication

Correct answer: Constructive Intervention

Constructive intervention occurs when a team member tactfully speaks up to prevent a potential error. By respectfully questioning the incorrect dose and suggesting the correct one, the provider is enhancing patient safety, a key principle of high-performance teams.

Question 14: How long should active fever prevention be maintained after cardiac arrest in a child managed with TTM?

At least 72 hours post-arrest (Correct answer)
12 hours only
Only during ICU admission
Until the child wakes up

Correct answer: At least 72 hours post-arrest

Fever prevention should continue for at least 72 hours post-arrest because hyperthermia worsens neurological injury during the recovery period.

Question 15: What is the minimum dose of atropine recommended in PALS to avoid a paradoxical bradycardic effect?

0.05 mg
0.1 mg (Correct answer)
0.5 mg
0.01 mg

Correct answer: 0.1 mg

The minimum atropine dose in PALS is 0.1 mg to prevent paradoxical bradycardia from excessive muscarinic stimulation at very low doses.

Question 16: What is the typical duration of the QRS in pediatric patients?

Less than or equal to 0.03 seconds
Less than or equal to 0.15 seconds
Less than or equal to 0.09 seconds (Correct answer)
Less than or equal to 0.9 seconds

Correct answer: Less than or equal to 0.09 seconds

In pediatric patients, the normal duration of the QRS complex is typically less than or equal to 0.09 seconds. A wider QRS complex (greater than 0.09 seconds) suggests a ventricular conduction delay or a ventricular origin of the rhythm. This measurement is a crucial diagnostic indicator in PALS for identifying different types of arrhythmias.

Question 17: What is the correct technique for inserting an oropharyngeal airway (OPA) in a young child, unlike the adult technique?

Insert sideways and rotate 90 degrees into position
Insert upside-down and rotate 180 degrees as in adults
Insert with the concave side directed toward the tongue using a tongue blade (Correct answer)
Insert at a 45-degree angle and straighten once in place

Correct answer: Insert with the concave side directed toward the tongue using a tongue blade

In pediatric patients, the OPA is inserted directly with the curve following the tongue using a tongue depressor to avoid injuring the delicate soft palate.

Question 18: Which finding on a rhythm strip is most consistent with ventricular tachycardia (VT)?

Narrow QRS at 240 bpm with retrograde P waves
Normal QRS with prolonged PR interval
Wide QRS complexes >0.09 seconds at a rate of 150–200 bpm with AV dissociation (Correct answer)
Regular rhythm at 50 bpm with wide QRS and normal P waves

Correct answer: Wide QRS complexes >0.09 seconds at a rate of 150–200 bpm with AV dissociation

VT is characterized by wide QRS complexes, rapid rate, and AV dissociation where P waves bear no relationship to QRS complexes.

Question 19: Which medication is used to treat supraventricular tachycardia in a hemodynamically stable child when adenosine fails?

Atropine
Epinephrine
Verapamil (only in children > 1 year) (Correct answer)
Vasopressin

Correct answer: Verapamil (only in children > 1 year)

Verapamil may be considered for SVT in children older than 1 year if adenosine fails, but is contraindicated in infants due to risk of cardiovascular collapse.

Question 20: Which of the following best describes Pulseless Electrical Activity (PEA) in a pediatric patient?

Normal sinus rhythm with poor perfusion
Absence of both electrical activity and pulse
Organized rhythm on monitor with no palpable pulse (Correct answer)
Chaotic electrical activity with no pulse

Correct answer: Organized rhythm on monitor with no palpable pulse

PEA is defined as an organized (or semi-organized) cardiac rhythm on the monitor without a palpable pulse.

Question 21: A 2-year-old is brought in with vomiting and diarrhea for 3 days. HR is 175, CRT is 5 sec, skin turgor is poor, and mucous membranes are dry. What is the primary shock type?

Cardiogenic shock
Hypovolemic shock (Correct answer)
Distributive shock
Obstructive shock

Correct answer: Hypovolemic shock

Prolonged vomiting and diarrhea cause volume depletion leading to hypovolemic shock, the most common type of shock in children.

Question 22: When analyzing a pediatric ECG, which QRS duration is the threshold that differentiates a narrow-complex from a wide-complex tachycardia according to PALS guidelines?

Greater than 0.12 seconds
Less than 0.08 seconds
Exactly 0.10 seconds
Greater than 0.09 seconds (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Greater than 0.09 seconds

In pediatric patients, the PALS guidelines define a wide-complex tachycardia as having a QRS duration greater than 0.09 seconds. A QRS duration of 0.09 seconds or less is considered a narrow-complex tachycardia.

Question 23: Which of the following best describes the correct depth of chest compressions in a school-age child (not infant)?

1 inch
As deep as possible regardless of size
At least 1.5 inches (about one-third AP chest diameter) (Correct answer)
At least 2 inches

Correct answer: At least 1.5 inches (about one-third AP chest diameter)

For children, compress at least one-third the anterior-posterior chest diameter, approximately 2 inches (5 cm).

Question 24: A provider is unable to visualize the vocal cords during direct laryngoscopy in a 3-year-old. Which device is the best alternative to improve glottic visualization?

Magill forceps
Video laryngoscope (Correct answer)
Oropharyngeal airway (OPA)
Nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)

Correct answer: Video laryngoscope

Video laryngoscopy provides a significantly improved view of the glottis through a camera, making it a valuable rescue tool for difficult pediatric airways.

Question 25: A 4-year-old with SVT converts to sinus rhythm after adenosine but then reverts to SVT 30 seconds later. What does this most likely indicate?

The dose was adequate but the underlying trigger needs treatment (Correct answer)
Adenosine was the wrong drug and should not be repeated
The rhythm is actually VT and not SVT
Adenosine should be given again at the same dose

Correct answer: The dose was adequate but the underlying trigger needs treatment

Recurrence of SVT after successful adenosine conversion often indicates a persistent underlying trigger (e.g., fever, electrolyte abnormality) or an accessory pathway; the next dose should be doubled or an alternative agent considered.

Question 26: You are performing bag-mask ventilation on a 6-month-old infant who has a pulse but is in respiratory arrest. What is the correct ventilation rate according to the most recent PALS guidelines?

As fast as possible to raise oxygen saturation
1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds (10-12 breaths/min)
1 breath every 2 to 3 seconds (20-30 breaths/min) (Correct answer)
1 breath every 6 to 8 seconds (8-10 breaths/min)

Correct answer: 1 breath every 2 to 3 seconds (20-30 breaths/min)

For rescue breathing in an infant or child with a pulse but inadequate respiratory effort, the correct rate is 1 breath every 2 to 3 seconds, which equals 20-30 breaths per minute. This rate ensures adequate ventilation without compromising hemodynamic stability by causing excessive intrathoracic pressure.

Question 27: A child has been successfully resuscitated and is being managed in the post-cardiac arrest phase. The team is aiming for normocapnia. Which of the following is the most reliable method for continuous monitoring of ventilation status?

Serial chest X-rays
Arterial blood gas analysis every 4 hours
Pulse oximetry
Waveform capnography (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Waveform capnography

Waveform capnography provides a continuous, real-time measurement of end-tidal CO2 (ETCO2), which reflects the partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2). [2, 3] This allows for precise titration of mechanical ventilation to achieve normocapnia (avoiding both hypocapnia and hypercapnia), which is crucial for maintaining stable cerebral blood flow. [3, 8] While ABGs are the gold standard for measurement, they are intermittent, whereas capnography is continuous. [1]

Question 28: A 15 kg child is in asystolic cardiac arrest. You are preparing the first dose of epinephrine. What is the correct volume of epinephrine to administer IV/IO, using the standard 1:10,000 concentration?

1.5 mL (Correct answer)
15 mL
0.75 mL
0.15 mL

Correct answer: 1.5 mL

The PALS dose for IV/IO epinephrine in cardiac arrest is 0.01 mg/kg. For a 15 kg child, this is 0.15 mg (15 kg x 0.01 mg/kg). The standard 1:10,000 concentration contains 1 mg in 10 mL, which is equivalent to 0.1 mg per mL. Therefore, the correct volume is 0.15 mg divided by 0.1 mg/mL, which equals 1.5 mL.

Question 29: During CPR, the team leader states 'We've given 2 doses of epinephrine with no ROSC. Let's discuss next steps.' What team dynamic principle does this BEST illustrate?

Closed-loop communication
Shared decision-making and situational awareness (Correct answer)
Workload distribution
Role clarity

Correct answer: Shared decision-making and situational awareness

Inviting team input while summarizing current status reflects shared decision-making and helps the team collectively determine next steps.

Question 30: Which of the following is considered the MOST common cause of bradycardia in infants and children?

Drug overdose
Hypoxia (Correct answer)
Hypothermia
Congenital heart block

Correct answer: Hypoxia

Unlike in adults, bradycardia in the pediatric population is most often a secondary event caused by hypoxia from respiratory failure or shock. This is why the initial steps of the PALS Bradycardia Algorithm always focus on establishing a patent airway, ensuring adequate oxygenation, and assisting ventilation.

Question 31: Which type of shock is characterized by warm, flushed skin with bounding pulses and wide pulse pressure?

Obstructive shock
Distributive (septic) shock (Correct answer)
Hypovolemic shock
Cardiogenic shock

Correct answer: Distributive (septic) shock

Distributive shock (e.g., septic) causes vasodilation, leading to warm skin, bounding pulses, and wide pulse pressure from decreased systemic vascular resistance.

Question 32: A 4-year-old child in the pediatric intensive care unit develops sudden, severe bradycardia. According to the PALS algorithm, what is the most common underlying cause of bradycardia in children?

Hypoglycemia
Primary cardiac conduction defect
Hyperthermia
Hypoxia (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hypoxia

Unlike adults, bradycardia in children is most often a secondary event, not a primary cardiac problem. The most common cause of pediatric bradycardia is hypoxia resulting from respiratory distress or failure. Therefore, the initial management steps in the PALS bradycardia algorithm focus on assessing and supporting the airway and breathing to ensure adequate oxygenation.

Question 33: A 7-year-old with SVT fails two doses of adenosine. The child remains stable with a HR of 220 bpm. What is the next recommended intervention?

Procainamide infusion
Immediate defibrillation
Synchronized cardioversion at 0.5-1 J/kg
Amiodarone 5 mg/kg IV (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Amiodarone 5 mg/kg IV

After adenosine failure in stable SVT, amiodarone 5 mg/kg IV over 20-60 minutes is a recommended second-line agent in PALS.

Question 34: Why is it important to avoid excessive ventilation during pediatric CPR even when a bag-mask is available?

It wastes rescuer time that should be spent on compressions
It accelerates metabolic acidosis
It causes bronchospasm in pediatric patients
It raises intrathoracic pressure, decreasing cardiac output and coronary perfusion (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It raises intrathoracic pressure, decreasing cardiac output and coronary perfusion

Over-ventilation raises intrathoracic pressure, impeding venous return and severely reducing cardiac output during CPR.

Question 35: What does the E-C clamp technique accomplish during pediatric bag-mask ventilation?

It assesses level of consciousness before ventilation
It secures an endotracheal tube at the lip
It maintains a tight seal between the mask and the patient's face (Correct answer)
It compresses the chest during CPR cycles

Correct answer: It maintains a tight seal between the mask and the patient's face

The E-C clamp uses thumb and index finger in a 'C' shape to hold the mask while the remaining fingers form an 'E' to lift the jaw, creating an effective mask seal.

Question 36: A 5-year-old boy with a known severe peanut allergy accidentally ingested a cookie containing peanuts. He is now anxious, has diffuse urticaria, wheezing, and a blood pressure of 70/40 mmHg. What is the immediate, first-line medication for managing his condition?

Intramuscular epinephrine (Correct answer)
Intravenous hydrocortisone
A rapid 20 mL/kg bolus of normal saline
Intravenous diphenhydramine

Correct answer: Intramuscular epinephrine

This patient is presenting with anaphylactic shock, a type of distributive shock. The immediate and most critical treatment is intramuscular epinephrine. Epinephrine addresses the life-threatening symptoms by causing vasoconstriction, bronchodilation, and decreasing capillary permeability. While fluids, antihistamines, and corticosteroids are also part of the management, epinephrine is the first-line and life-saving intervention.

Question 37: During high-quality pediatric CPR, compressor fatigue typically degrades compression quality after approximately:

2 minutes (Correct answer)
1 minute
10 minutes
5 minutes

Correct answer: 2 minutes

Compressor fatigue causes significant deterioration in compression rate and depth after approximately 2 minutes, which is why rotation every 2 minutes is recommended.

Question 38: A child post-ROSC has lactic acidosis with a pH of 7.15. What is the MOST appropriate initial management?

Restrict all IV fluids to prevent acidosis worsening
Begin hemodialysis for metabolic correction
Administer sodium bicarbonate immediately
Optimize ventilation, oxygenation, and perfusion to clear the lactate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Optimize ventilation, oxygenation, and perfusion to clear the lactate

Post-arrest lactic acidosis usually resolves with optimizing perfusion; sodium bicarbonate is not routinely recommended and does not improve outcomes.

Question 39: A lone rescuer finds a 7-year-old unresponsive with no breathing. The rescuer has a phone. What is the correct sequence?

Call 911 first → then start CPR
Call 911 on speakerphone simultaneously while beginning CPR (Correct answer)
Start CPR → call 911 after 2 minutes
Start CPR for 5 cycles → call 911 → continue CPR

Correct answer: Call 911 on speakerphone simultaneously while beginning CPR

A lone rescuer should activate EMS on speakerphone while simultaneously beginning CPR to minimize delay in both actions.

Question 40: Which is the preferred IO insertion site in infants and young children?

Proximal tibia, 1–3 cm below the tibial tuberosity (Correct answer)
Humeral head
Iliac crest
Distal femur

Correct answer: Proximal tibia, 1–3 cm below the tibial tuberosity

The proximal tibia is the preferred IO site in young children due to its flat, easily identifiable surface and large medullary cavity.

Question 41: During a pediatric resuscitation, a team member notices the compressor is leaning on the chest between compressions. The BEST action is to:

Pause CPR and instruct the compressor before resuming
Verbally coach the compressor to release pressure without stopping CPR (Correct answer)
Rotate the compressor immediately at the next 2-minute interval
Switch to the two thumb-encircling technique to compensate

Correct answer: Verbally coach the compressor to release pressure without stopping CPR

The best approach is to verbally coach the compressor in real time without interrupting CPR, preserving compression fraction.

Question 42: What is the key ECG feature that distinguishes sinus tachycardia from SVT in an infant?

Presence of upright P waves before each QRS in leads I and aVF (Correct answer)
ST segment depression
QRS duration >0.12 seconds
Heart rate exceeding 200 bpm

Correct answer: Presence of upright P waves before each QRS in leads I and aVF

In sinus tachycardia, normal upright P waves precede each QRS in leads I and aVF, whereas SVT typically lacks visible or has abnormal P waves.

Question 43: A child receives high-quality CPR for 2 minutes. The AED analyzes and advises 'no shock.' What is the NEXT step?

Immediately resume CPR for another 2 minutes (Correct answer)
Give 2 rescue breaths before resuming compressions
Administer epinephrine before resuming CPR
Check for a pulse and observe for 30 seconds

Correct answer: Immediately resume CPR for another 2 minutes

If the AED advises no shock, immediately resume CPR beginning with compressions to minimize interruptions to perfusion.

Question 44: Which of the following is the correct second dose of adenosine if the first dose fails to convert SVT?

0.3 mg/kg (maximum 18 mg)
0.5 mg/kg (maximum 6 mg)
0.2 mg/kg (maximum 12 mg) (Correct answer)
0.1 mg/kg (same as first dose)

Correct answer: 0.2 mg/kg (maximum 12 mg)

If the first dose of adenosine (0.1 mg/kg) fails, the second dose is doubled to 0.2 mg/kg, with a maximum of 12 mg.

Question 45: A 2-year-old is brought in with a heart rate of 280 bpm, poor perfusion, and altered mental status. What is the immediate treatment?

Amiodarone 5 mg/kg IV over 20 min
Vagal maneuvers
Adenosine 0.1 mg/kg IV push
Synchronized cardioversion starting at 0.5-1 J/kg (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Synchronized cardioversion starting at 0.5-1 J/kg

Unstable SVT with hemodynamic compromise requires immediate synchronized cardioversion at 0.5-1 J/kg, escalating to 2 J/kg if needed.

Question 46: In a child with hemorrhagic shock, which fluid is preferred over isotonic crystalloid once available?

Packed red blood cells (pRBCs) (Correct answer)
5% albumin
Hypertonic saline
Lactated Ringer's solution

Correct answer: Packed red blood cells (pRBCs)

In hemorrhagic shock, packed red blood cells restore oxygen-carrying capacity along with volume, making them superior to crystalloid alone.

Question 47: After delivering an initial 2 J/kg shock in a child with VF, what is the recommended second defibrillation dose?

10 J/kg
2 J/kg
4 J/kg (Correct answer)
6 J/kg

Correct answer: 4 J/kg

Subsequent defibrillation doses are 4 J/kg or higher (up to 10 J/kg or adult max) if the initial dose fails.

Question 48: A 10-month-old presents with a 2-day history of cough, wheeze, and low-grade fever. Examination shows prolonged expiration and diffuse crackles. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Asthma
Bronchiolitis (Correct answer)
Pneumonia
Croup

Correct answer: Bronchiolitis

Bronchiolitis, most commonly caused by RSV, typically affects infants under 2 years with wheeze, prolonged expiration, and crackles following an upper respiratory prodrome.

Question 49: A child is unresponsive and not breathing normally. You are alone. After calling for help, what is the FIRST action before starting CPR?

Give 2 rescue breaths
Apply an AED immediately
Check for a pulse for up to 10 seconds (Correct answer)
Begin 30 chest compressions

Correct answer: Check for a pulse for up to 10 seconds

Before starting CPR, briefly check for a pulse (no more than 10 seconds) to determine if compressions are needed.

Question 50: What is the recommended immediate action if the first attempt at pediatric endotracheal intubation is unsuccessful?

Immediately reattempt intubation with the same blade and technique
Proceed directly to surgical cricothyrotomy
Administer epinephrine and reattempt after 2 minutes
Resume bag-mask ventilation to oxygenate before reattempting (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Resume bag-mask ventilation to oxygenate before reattempting

After a failed intubation attempt, the priority is to return to bag-mask ventilation to reoxygenate the patient before making another attempt.

Question 51: The principle of "knowing one's limitations" is crucial for a high-performance resuscitation team. Which of the following actions is the best example of this principle?

A team member who is struggling to obtain IV access asks another provider to try. (Correct answer)
The team leader insists on performing all complex procedures personally.
A junior team member remains silent even when they suspect an incorrect drug is being prepared.
A provider attempts an unfamiliar procedure without asking for guidance.

Correct answer: A team member who is struggling to obtain IV access asks another provider to try.

Knowing one's limitations means recognizing when a task is difficult or beyond one's ability and seeking help early. This prioritizes the patient's well-being over personal pride and is a sign of a mature and effective team member.

PALS Certification Exam

The AHA Pediatric Advanced Life Support (PALS) exam evaluates healthcare providers on systematic assessment, resuscitation algorithms, pharmacology, and team dynamics for critically ill pediatric patients.

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

84%

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