CSP - Certified Specialty Pharmacist Clinical Management: Infectious Disease Questions and Answers

Question 1

A patient is being initiated on sofosbuvir/velpatasvir for Hepatitis C genotype 1. Their current medication list includes amlodipine, lisinopril, rosuvastatin 20 mg daily, and omeprazole 40 mg daily. Which of the following recommendations is most appropriate for the specialty pharmacist to make?

Accepted Answer

Advise the patient to take the sofosbuvir/velpatasvir with food, four hours before the omeprazole.

Answer

Velpatasvir's absorption is pH-dependent and is reduced by acid-lowering agents. Co-administration with proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) like omeprazole is generally not recommended. However, if medically necessary, sofosbuvir/velpatasvir should be administered with food and taken 4 hours before a low dose of omeprazole (e.g., 20 mg).

Question 2

According to the 2021 IDSA/SHEA guidelines for an initial episode of non-severe Clostridioides difficile infection (CDI), which of the following is the preferred treatment?

Accepted Answer

Fidaxomicin 200 mg orally twice daily for 10 days

Answer

The 2021 focused update from IDSA/SHEA suggests using fidaxomicin over a standard course of vancomycin for an initial CDI episode. This is a conditional recommendation based on moderate certainty of evidence, placing a high value on fidaxomicin's beneficial effects, though vancomycin remains an acceptable alternative.

Question 3

A 35-year-old male patient with HIV is diagnosed with latent tuberculosis infection (LTBI). His current antiretroviral therapy (ART) is Biktarvy® (bictegravir/emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide). Which of the following is a preferred and appropriate treatment regimen for his LTBI?

Accepted Answer

Isoniazid 300 mg daily for 9 months

Answer

Nine months of daily isoniazid is a standard and effective treatment for latent TB infection in people with HIV and can be co-administered with any antiretroviral regimen, including Biktarvy®. Rifamycin-based regimens (like those containing rifampin or rifapentine) have significant drug-drug interactions with many ART components, including integrase inhibitors like bictegravir, making isoniazid monotherapy a safer and preferred choice in this scenario.

Question 4

A specialty pharmacist is counseling a patient who is starting on daily oral emtricitabine/tenofovir alafenamide (F/TAF) for HIV pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP). Which of the following is a critical initial assessment that must be confirmed before dispensing the first fill?

Accepted Answer

A negative HIV test result at or very near the time of initiation.

Answer

It is imperative to confirm that a patient is HIV-negative before starting PrEP. Initiating a two-drug regimen like F/TAF in a person with undiagnosed acute or established HIV can lead to the development of drug resistance, complicating future treatment options.

Question 5

Which of the following laboratory parameters is essential to obtain at baseline before initiating any direct-acting antiviral (DAA) regimen for Hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection?

Accepted Answer

Complete blood count (CBC) and a hepatic function panel

Answer

Guidelines recommend several baseline laboratory tests within 6 months of starting DAA therapy, including a complete blood count (CBC), international normalized ratio (INR), and a hepatic function panel (albumin, bilirubin, ALT, AST). These tests help assess the patient's liver disease severity and overall health status before treatment.

CSP - Certified Specialty Pharmacist Practice Test

CSP - Certified Specialty Pharmacist Practice Test

CSP - Certified Specialty Pharmacist Clinical Management: Infectious Disease Questions and Answers