OTC Orthopaedic Technologist Certified Infection Control and Safety 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which class of fire extinguisher is most appropriate for an electrical fire in an orthopaedic clinic?
- Class A
- Class B
- Class C (Correct answer)
- Class D
Correct answer: Class C
Class C extinguishers are designed for electrical fires and use non-conductive agents to suppress flames without risk of electrocution.
Question 2: When a patient's cast becomes saturated with blood, the orthopaedic technologist should treat the blood as:
- A minor inconvenience requiring simple cleanup
- Potentially infectious material requiring standard precautions (Correct answer)
- Non-infectious if the patient has no known bloodborne diseases
- Infectious only if it contacts mucous membranes
Correct answer: Potentially infectious material requiring standard precautions
Standard precautions require treating all blood and body fluids as potentially infectious regardless of the patient's known disease status.
Question 3: The recommended contact time for a quaternary ammonium disinfectant to be effective on a hard surface is typically:
- 10 seconds
- 30 seconds
- 10 minutes (Correct answer)
- 30 minutes
Correct answer: 10 minutes
Most quaternary ammonium compounds require a 10-minute wet contact time on surfaces to achieve the labeled disinfection efficacy.
Question 4: An orthopaedic technologist notices a needle on the floor of the procedure room. The safest action is to:
- Pick it up bare-handed and dispose of it immediately
- Use a mechanical device or forceps to pick it up without recapping (Correct answer)
- Recap the needle before placing it in the sharps container
- Leave it and notify housekeeping to handle it
Correct answer: Use a mechanical device or forceps to pick it up without recapping
Needles on floors should never be picked up bare-handed; a mechanical device prevents needlestick injury, and needles should never be recapped.
Question 5: Which of the following best describes the purpose of a Material Safety Data Sheet (SDS) in an orthopaedic setting?
- To document patient allergy information
- To provide detailed hazard and handling information for chemical substances (Correct answer)
- To track inventory levels of medical supplies
- To record OSHA inspection findings
Correct answer: To provide detailed hazard and handling information for chemical substances
Safety Data Sheets (SDS) provide comprehensive information on chemical hazards, handling, storage, and emergency measures for workplace chemicals.
Question 6: When performing a wound irrigation in a splint room, splash-generating procedures require the orthopaedic technologist to wear:
- Gloves only
- Gloves and gown only
- Gloves, gown, and eye protection (Correct answer)
- No PPE unless the patient is on contact precautions
Correct answer: Gloves, gown, and eye protection
Any procedure with splash or splatter potential requires gloves, gown, and eye/face protection per standard precautions.
Question 7: The Spaulding classification system categorizes medical devices as critical, semi-critical, or noncritical based on:
- Cost of the device
- The risk of infection associated with device use (Correct answer)
- The material the device is made from
- Whether the device is reusable or disposable
Correct answer: The risk of infection associated with device use
The Spaulding classification system guides reprocessing decisions by categorizing devices according to their infection risk during patient use.
Which class of fire extinguisher is most appropriate for an electrical fire in an orthopaedic clinic?