Nevada Bar Examination (NV Bar) — Questions and Answers

Question 1: Nevada RPC 1.15 requires client funds to be held in which type of account?

An interest-bearing account in the client's name only
A trust or client funds account separate from the attorney's own funds (Correct answer)
The attorney's personal account
A joint account with the client

Correct answer: A trust or client funds account separate from the attorney's own funds

Under Nevada RPC 1.15, lawyers must deposit client funds in a separate trust (IOLTA) account and keep them separate from the lawyer's own property.

Question 2: How should examinees approach contradictions between the File and the Library?

Ignore all contradictions
Identify the contradiction and explain how it affects the analysis (Correct answer)
Always prefer information from the File
Always prefer information from the Library

Correct answer: Identify the contradiction and explain how it affects the analysis

When contradictions arise between the File (factual documents) and the Library (legal authorities) in an MPT, examinees should not ignore them or arbitrarily choose one over the other. Instead, the correct approach is to identify the discrepancy, discuss its implications, and explain how it impacts the legal analysis or the advice given to the client. This demonstrates critical thinking and thoroughness in legal reasoning.

Question 3: In Nevada, an easement appurtenant benefits which party?

The state of Nevada
The easement holder personally regardless of land ownership
The dominant estate (the land benefited) (Correct answer)
The servient estate (the land burdened)

Correct answer: The dominant estate (the land benefited)

An easement appurtenant benefits the dominant estate and runs with the land, automatically transferring to successive owners of the dominant parcel.

Question 4: Under Nevada law, what are the four unities required to create a joint tenancy?

Title, occupancy, payment, duration
Time, place, value, intent
Possession, consideration, consent, capacity
Time, title, interest, possession (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Time, title, interest, possession

Nevada requires the four unities of time (same time), title (same instrument), interest (equal shares), and possession (equal right to possess) to create a valid joint tenancy.

Question 5: In Nevada, which of the following statements about the business records exception to hearsay is correct?

The record must have been made by a government entity to qualify
The exception applies only to financial records
The record must have been made at or near the time of the event by someone with knowledge, kept in the regular course of business (Correct answer)
The exception requires the original author of the record to testify

Correct answer: The record must have been made at or near the time of the event by someone with knowledge, kept in the regular course of business

NRS 51.135 (business records exception) requires the record to be made at or near the time of the event by a person with knowledge, and kept in the regular course of a regularly conducted business activity.

Question 6: Which of the following is NOT typically considered a defense to a breach of contract claim?

Unilateral mistake (Correct answer)
Mutual mistake
Frustration of purpose
Impossibility of performance

Correct answer: Unilateral mistake

Defenses to a breach of contract claim typically include impossibility of performance, frustration of purpose, and mutual mistake, as these can fundamentally undermine the agreement or its enforceability. A unilateral mistake, where only one party is mistaken about a material fact, is generally not a valid defense unless the other party knew or should have known of the mistake and took advantage of it, or if the mistake makes enforcement unconscionable.

Question 7: Nevada's anti-SLAPP statute protects defendants from suits that target which type of activity?

Breach of contract claims
Good faith communications in furtherance of constitutional rights (Correct answer)
Commercial advertising
Defamatory statements about public officials

Correct answer: Good faith communications in furtherance of constitutional rights

NRS 41.635–41.670 protects defendants from Strategic Lawsuits Against Public Participation (SLAPP) involving good faith communications in furtherance of constitutional rights to free speech or petition.

Question 8: Under Nevada RPC, a lawyer's duty of confidentiality to a client begins:

Only upon payment of a retainer
When the client reasonably believes the lawyer-client relationship exists (Correct answer)
Only after formal retention
Only upon signing an engagement letter

Correct answer: When the client reasonably believes the lawyer-client relationship exists

Under Nevada RPC 1.6, confidentiality obligations arise when a prospective client reasonably believes a lawyer-client relationship has been formed, even before formal retention.

Question 9: Under Nevada's foreclosure law, which type of foreclosure is most commonly used?

Scire facias foreclosure
Strict foreclosure
Non-judicial (trustee's sale) foreclosure (Correct answer)
Judicial foreclosure

Correct answer: Non-judicial (trustee's sale) foreclosure

Nevada primarily uses non-judicial foreclosure (trustee's sale) under NRS 107.080, which does not require court action and is faster than judicial foreclosure.

Question 10: Under Nevada law, which of the following crimes is classified as a category A felony?

Battery with substantial bodily harm
Possession of a controlled substance
First-degree murder (Correct answer)
Grand larceny of property valued over $1,200

Correct answer: First-degree murder

First-degree murder is a category A felony in Nevada, the most serious classification, carrying potential life imprisonment or death.

Question 11: Nevada's Rules of Professional Conduct are based primarily on which model?

ABA Model Code of Professional Responsibility (1969)
ABA Model Rules of Professional Conduct (Correct answer)
California Rules of Professional Conduct
Restatement (Third) of the Law Governing Lawyers

Correct answer: ABA Model Rules of Professional Conduct

Nevada's Rules of Professional Conduct are substantially based on the ABA Model Rules of Professional Conduct, adapted with some Nevada-specific modifications.

Question 12: In Nevada, what is the minimum age to marry without parental consent?

16 years old
21 years old
18 years old (Correct answer)
17 years old

Correct answer: 18 years old

Under NRS 122.020, the minimum age to marry in Nevada without parental consent is 18 years old.

Question 13: In Nevada, what is the statute of limitations for a general negligence personal injury claim?

6 years
3 years
1 year
2 years (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2 years

Nevada has a 2-year statute of limitations for personal injury claims based on negligence under NRS 11.190(4)(e).

Question 14: Nevada recognizes which concurrent ownership that includes a right of survivorship?

Periodic tenancy
Tenancy in common
Tenancy at will
Joint tenancy (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Joint tenancy

Joint tenancy in Nevada carries a right of survivorship, meaning a deceased joint tenant's interest automatically passes to the surviving joint tenants.

Question 15: Under the Nevada Rules of Civil Procedure, how many days does a defendant have to respond to a complaint after personal service?

20 days
30 days
10 days
21 days (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 21 days

Under NRCP 12(a)(1)(A), a defendant must serve an answer within 21 days after being served with the summons and complaint.

Question 16: Nevada uses which standard for a motion for summary judgment?

Probable cause that movant will prevail at trial
No genuine dispute of material fact and movant entitled to judgment as a matter of law (Correct answer)
Preponderance of evidence favors the movant
Clear and convincing evidence supports the movant

Correct answer: No genuine dispute of material fact and movant entitled to judgment as a matter of law

Under NRCP 56, summary judgment is granted when there is no genuine dispute of material fact and the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law.

Question 17: Which doctrine in Nevada allows a court to dismiss a case that has not been brought to trial within a prescribed period?

Failure to prosecute (Correct answer)
Res judicata
Laches
Collateral estoppel

Correct answer: Failure to prosecute

Nevada courts may dismiss an action for failure to prosecute when a plaintiff unreasonably delays bringing the case to trial.

Question 18: In Nevada, which court has original jurisdiction over civil matters exceeding $15,000?

Court of Appeals
Municipal Court
District Court (Correct answer)
Justice Court

Correct answer: District Court

Nevada District Courts have original jurisdiction over civil cases where the amount in controversy exceeds $15,000.

Question 19: In Nevada civil litigation, a motion for a new trial must be filed within how many days after entry of judgment?

15 days (Correct answer)
20 days
10 days
30 days

Correct answer: 15 days

Under NRCP 59(b), a motion for a new trial must be filed no later than 15 days after entry of judgment.

Question 20: Nevada follows which recording act priority system for real property?

First in time, first in right
Race-notice (Correct answer)
Pure notice
Pure race

Correct answer: Race-notice

Nevada follows a race-notice recording act under NRS 111.325, protecting subsequent purchasers who record first AND take without notice of prior unrecorded claims.

Question 21: In Nevada, a domestic violence protective order (TPO) can be issued ex parte for an initial period of how long?

45 days
30 days (Correct answer)
7 days
3 days

Correct answer: 30 days

Under NRS 33.020, a temporary protective order in Nevada may be issued ex parte and is effective for up to 30 days pending the extended order hearing.

Question 22: In Nevada, what is the criminal statute of limitations for murder?

20 years
10 years
No statute of limitations (Correct answer)
7 years

Correct answer: No statute of limitations

Under NRS 171.080, murder and certain other serious crimes have no statute of limitations in Nevada and may be prosecuted at any time.

Question 23: Under Nevada law, which hearsay exception applies to a statement made by a declarant while believing death was imminent, concerning the cause of what the declarant believed to be impending death?

Excited utterance
Dying declaration (Correct answer)
Statement against interest
Present sense impression

Correct answer: Dying declaration

NRS 51.335 codifies the dying declaration exception, allowing admission of statements made under a sense of impending death about the cause or circumstances of that death.

Question 24: Which of the following is an example of an intentional tort?

Res ipsa loquitur
Strict liability
Battery (Correct answer)
Negligence

Correct answer: Battery

An intentional tort requires the defendant to have acted with the intent to cause a particular harmful or offensive contact, or to cause apprehension of such contact. Battery is an intentional tort because it involves an intentional act that causes harmful or offensive contact with another person. This distinguishes it from negligence, which involves a lack of due care, or strict liability, which imposes liability without fault.

Question 25: In Nevada, what is the most severe sanction the Nevada Supreme Court can impose for attorney misconduct?

Public reprimand
Disbarment (Correct answer)
Permanent revocation with five-year bar on reinstatement
Suspension

Correct answer: Disbarment

Disbarment is the most severe sanction available in Nevada attorney discipline, stripping the attorney of the license to practice law in Nevada.

Question 26: Under the Nevada Rules of Evidence, which of the following is the correct standard for admissibility of expert testimony?

The expert must use only methodologies that have been published in peer-reviewed journals
The expert must be certified by a state licensing board relevant to the subject matter
The expert must have testified as an expert in at least five prior Nevada cases
The expert must have specialized knowledge that will assist the trier of fact to understand the evidence or determine a fact in issue (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The expert must have specialized knowledge that will assist the trier of fact to understand the evidence or determine a fact in issue

NRS 50.275 (mirroring FRE 702) allows expert testimony when the expert's specialized knowledge will assist the trier of fact, without requiring board certification or a specific number of prior appearances.

Question 27: Which of the following is an example of a hearsay exception under the Federal Rules of Evidence?

Character evidence
Leading questions
Expert testimony
Present sense impression (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Present sense impression

Hearsay is an out-of-court statement offered in court to prove the truth of the matter asserted, and it is generally inadmissible. However, the Federal Rules of Evidence provide numerous exceptions, such as a 'present sense impression.' This is a statement describing an event made while or immediately after the declarant perceived it, considered reliable due to its spontaneity and proximity to the event.

Question 28: Under Nevada's physician-patient privilege, which of the following is NOT an exception that would permit disclosure of otherwise privileged medical communications?

The patient's employer requests the records for an unrelated employment matter (Correct answer)
The patient has placed their physical condition at issue in litigation
The communication was made to enable the physician to act in furtherance of a crime or fraud
The patient is deceased and the disclosure is sought in a proceeding to contest the will

Correct answer: The patient's employer requests the records for an unrelated employment matter

An employer's general request for records for an unrelated employment matter does not qualify as one of the statutory exceptions to the physician-patient privilege under NRS 49.215–49.245.

Question 29: Under Nevada RPC 1.16, when must an attorney withdraw from representation?

Whenever the case becomes unprofitable
Whenever the client requests it
When the representation will result in violation of the Rules of Professional Conduct or other law (Correct answer)
Whenever the client changes strategy

Correct answer: When the representation will result in violation of the Rules of Professional Conduct or other law

Under Nevada RPC 1.16(a), mandatory withdrawal is required when continued representation would result in a violation of the Rules of Professional Conduct or other law.

Question 30: What is the recommended way to manage time during an MPT task?

Read and write simultaneously throughout the 90 minutes
Spend 30 minutes reading, 60 minutes writing (Correct answer)
There is no recommended time management strategy
Spend the first hour reading, the last 30 minutes writing

Correct answer: Spend 30 minutes reading, 60 minutes writing

A commonly recommended time management strategy for the 90-minute MPT is to allocate approximately 30 minutes for thoroughly reading and outlining the File and Library materials. The remaining 60 minutes should then be dedicated to drafting the required legal document. This approach ensures sufficient time for both understanding the problem and producing a well-structured and comprehensive response.

Question 31: In Nevada, what is the mens rea required for battery?

Recklessness
Negligence
Specific intent to cause serious bodily harm
General intent to commit the act (Correct answer)

Correct answer: General intent to commit the act

Nevada battery under NRS 200.481 requires only general intent — the willful and unlawful use of force or violence upon another person.

Question 32: What is the primary purpose of the MPT?

To assess fundamental lawyering skills (Correct answer)
To evaluate mathematical abilities
To check knowledge of local court rules
To test substantive law knowledge

Correct answer: To assess fundamental lawyering skills

The primary purpose of the Multistate Performance Test (MPT) is to evaluate an examinee's practical lawyering skills, such as identifying legal issues, analyzing facts, applying legal principles from a provided library, and communicating effectively in a legal document. It tests the ability to 'think like a lawyer' and perform tasks commonly encountered in legal practice, rather than just recalling memorized legal rules.

Question 33: Under Nevada's habitual criminal statute, what prior felony conviction history can result in life imprisonment?

One prior felony conviction
Three prior felony convictions (Correct answer)
Two prior felony convictions
Four prior felony convictions

Correct answer: Three prior felony convictions

Under NRS 207.010, a defendant with three prior felony convictions may be sentenced as a large habitual criminal, potentially receiving a life sentence.

Question 34: Which of the following is NOT a required element of a valid contract?

Offer
Notarization (Correct answer)
Consideration
Acceptance

Correct answer: Notarization

The essential elements required for a valid contract are offer, acceptance, and consideration, along with legal capacity and lawful purpose. While notarization may be required for certain types of documents or for evidentiary purposes, it is generally not a fundamental requirement for the formation of a valid contract itself. Many contracts are perfectly valid without being notarized.

Question 35: What is the minimum passing score for the Nevada Law Exam?

80%
65%
75% (Correct answer)
70%

Correct answer: 75%

To successfully pass the Nevada Law Exam, which is a specific component of the overall Nevada Bar Exam, candidates must achieve a minimum passing score of 75%. This threshold ensures that applicants demonstrate a sufficient understanding of Nevada-specific legal principles and procedures. Meeting this score is crucial for bar admission.

Question 36: In property law, what is the rule against perpetuities concerned with?

Prohibiting landlords from evicting tenants
Regulating zoning laws
Preventing infinite property taxes
Limiting the duration of future interests (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Limiting the duration of future interests

The Rule Against Perpetuities (RAP) is a common law rule designed to prevent property interests from being tied up indefinitely in the future. It limits the duration of certain future interests in property, ensuring that they vest (become certain) within a specific period, typically 'lives in being plus 21 years.' This rule promotes the alienability and productive use of land.

Question 37: What components make up the Nevada Bar Exam?

MBE, MEE, and MPT
MBE, MEE, MPT, and Nevada Law Exam (Correct answer)
Only a Nevada-specific exam
MBE and Nevada Law Exam

Correct answer: MBE, MEE, MPT, and Nevada Law Exam

The Nevada Bar Exam is a comprehensive assessment consisting of four main components. These include the Multistate Bar Examination (MBE), the Multistate Essay Examination (MEE), the Multistate Performance Test (MPT), and a specific Nevada Law Exam. All these sections are designed to thoroughly test an applicant's legal knowledge and skills.

Question 38: Nevada's landlord-tenant law requires a landlord to return a tenant's security deposit within how many days of move-out?

14 days
21 days
45 days
30 days (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 30 days

Under NRS 118A.242, a Nevada landlord must return the security deposit (or provide an itemized written statement of deductions) within 30 days after the tenant vacates.

Question 39: Under Nevada law, the psychotherapist-patient privilege protects communications between a patient and a licensed psychotherapist. Which of the following correctly identifies who holds this privilege?

Only the psychotherapist holds the privilege
The patient holds the privilege, but the psychotherapist may also claim it on the patient's behalf if the patient is absent or incapacitated (Correct answer)
Both the patient and the psychotherapist hold the privilege independently
Only the patient holds the privilege

Correct answer: The patient holds the privilege, but the psychotherapist may also claim it on the patient's behalf if the patient is absent or incapacitated

Under NRS 49.215 and related provisions, the psychotherapist-patient privilege belongs to the patient, but the psychotherapist may assert it on the patient's behalf when the patient is absent or unable to assert it.

Question 40: Which of the following is NOT a valid basis for federal subject matter jurisdiction?

Amount in controversy exceeds $75,000
Plaintiff resides in the state where the federal court is located (Correct answer)
Diversity of citizenship
Federal question

Correct answer: Plaintiff resides in the state where the federal court is located

Federal subject matter jurisdiction is primarily based on either a federal question (the case arises under federal law) or diversity of citizenship (parties are from different states and the amount in controversy exceeds $75,000). A plaintiff's residence in the state where the federal court is located, by itself, does not establish federal jurisdiction. It is a factor in diversity but not a standalone basis for federal court authority.

Question 41: In Nevada, sentencing for most felonies follows which structure?

Judge-only determinate sentencing
Minimum-maximum indeterminate sentences (Correct answer)
Flat determinate sentences only
Mandatory guidelines with no discretion

Correct answer: Minimum-maximum indeterminate sentences

Nevada uses an indeterminate sentencing system where statutes prescribe minimum and maximum terms, and parole boards determine actual release within that range.

Question 42: Which of the following is NOT a subject tested on the Nevada Law Exam?

Nevada Criminal Procedure
Nevada Rules of Professional Conduct
Nevada Constitutional Law (Correct answer)
Nevada Civil Procedure

Correct answer: Nevada Constitutional Law

The Nevada Law Exam primarily focuses on state-specific procedural and ethical rules, such as Nevada Civil Procedure, Nevada Criminal Procedure, and the Nevada Rules of Professional Conduct. While constitutional law is fundamental, the Nevada Law Exam typically does not test Nevada Constitutional Law as a distinct subject, as general constitutional principles are covered by the MBE. This allows for a specialized focus on state-specific practice.

Question 43: Nevada's felony murder rule applies when a killing occurs during which type of offense?

Enumerated inherently dangerous felonies only (Correct answer)
Any crime against a person
Any felony
Any crime involving weapons

Correct answer: Enumerated inherently dangerous felonies only

Under NRS 200.030, Nevada's felony murder rule applies when a killing occurs during specific enumerated dangerous felonies such as robbery, kidnapping, sexual assault, arson, burglary, and home invasion.

Question 44: Under Nevada's Uniform Interstate Family Support Act (UIFSA), which state has jurisdiction to modify a child support order?

Only the issuing state, unless both parties consent to transfer (Correct answer)
Any state the child resides in
Only the state where the paying parent resides
Any state where either party resides

Correct answer: Only the issuing state, unless both parties consent to transfer

Under UIFSA as adopted in NRS Chapter 130, only the issuing state retains continuing exclusive jurisdiction to modify its support order unless both parties have left that state.

Question 45: Under Nevada law, what percentage of jurors must agree for a civil verdict?

67%
100%
51%
75% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 75%

Nevada requires three-fourths (9 of 12) juror agreement for a civil verdict under NRS 16.150.

Question 46: In contract law, what is the general rule regarding acceptance of an offer?

Acceptance must mirror the terms of the offer (Correct answer)
Acceptance can be made by anyone who knows about the offer
Acceptance must be made in writing
Acceptance is always effective upon dispatch

Correct answer: Acceptance must mirror the terms of the offer

Under common law, the 'mirror image rule' dictates that an acceptance must precisely match the terms of the offer without any modifications or additions. If the acceptance introduces new terms, it is considered a counteroffer, which effectively rejects the original offer and creates a new one. This rule ensures mutual assent to the exact same terms for contract formation.

Question 47: In Nevada, robbery is distinguished from theft by which additional element?

Value of property taken
Use of force or fear (Correct answer)
Number of victims
Premeditation

Correct answer: Use of force or fear

Under NRS 200.380, robbery is the unlawful taking of personal property from another by means of force or fear, distinguishing it from simple theft.

Question 48: Under Nevada law, what degree of murder applies when a killing is willful, deliberate, and premeditated?

Voluntary manslaughter
Felony murder
Second-degree murder
First-degree murder (Correct answer)

Correct answer: First-degree murder

NRS 200.030 classifies willful, deliberate, and premeditated killing as first-degree murder, carrying a potential penalty of life imprisonment.

Question 49: Under Nevada's Uniform Parentage Act, a man is presumed to be a child's father if he:

Provides financial support for the child
Signs a birth certificate only
Was married to the mother when the child was born (Correct answer)
Holds himself out as the father publicly

Correct answer: Was married to the mother when the child was born

Under NRS 126.051, a man is presumed to be a child's natural father if he was married to the mother at the time of the child's birth.

Question 50: Which Nevada RPC provision governs a lawyer's duty of candor to the tribunal?

RPC 1.6
RPC 1.2
RPC 4.1
RPC 3.3 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: RPC 3.3

Nevada RPC 3.3 imposes a duty of candor toward the tribunal, prohibiting false statements of fact or law and requiring disclosure of directly adverse controlling authority.

Question 51: What is the Nevada doctrine that prevents a party from relitigating issues that were actually litigated and decided in a prior proceeding?

Equitable estoppel
Collateral estoppel (Correct answer)
Judicial estoppel
Res judicata

Correct answer: Collateral estoppel

Collateral estoppel (issue preclusion) bars relitigation of issues that were actually litigated, necessarily decided, and essential to a final judgment in a prior proceeding.

Question 52: What is the minimum mandatory jail time for a first-offense DUI conviction in Nevada?

72 hours
24 hours
48 hours (Correct answer)
7 days

Correct answer: 48 hours

Under NRS 484C.400, a first-offense DUI conviction in Nevada carries a minimum of 2 days (48 hours) in jail or 96 hours of community service.

Question 53: Nevada child support is calculated primarily based on which method?

Percentage of income of the paying parent only (Correct answer)
Judge's discretion alone
Flat statutory amount per child
Income shares model

Correct answer: Percentage of income of the paying parent only

Nevada calculates child support as a percentage of the gross monthly income of the paying parent under NRS 125B.070, with set percentages per number of children.

Question 54: Which of the following skills is NOT typically tested in the MPT?

Factual analysis
Legal analysis
Communication
Memorization of state-specific laws (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Memorization of state-specific laws

The Multistate Performance Test (MPT) is designed to assess fundamental lawyering skills, such as legal analysis, factual analysis, problem-solving, and communication, rather than rote memorization of substantive law. All necessary legal principles are provided in the 'Library' section of the MPT, allowing examinees to focus on applying law to facts. Therefore, memorization of state-specific laws is not tested.

Question 55: What is the Nevada standard for determining whether a defendant's confession was voluntary?

Probable cause
Preponderance of evidence (Correct answer)
Beyond a reasonable doubt
Clear and convincing evidence

Correct answer: Preponderance of evidence

Nevada courts determine the voluntariness of a confession by a preponderance of the evidence, considering the totality of the circumstances.

Question 56: In criminal law, what is the difference between general and specific intent?

General intent requires knowledge of illegality, specific intent doesn't
There is no legal difference between the two
Specific intent requires a particular purpose, general intent doesn't (Correct answer)
General intent applies to felonies, specific intent to misdemeanors

Correct answer: Specific intent requires a particular purpose, general intent doesn't

In criminal law, specific intent crimes require the defendant to have acted with a particular purpose or objective beyond the mere act itself. General intent crimes, on the other hand, only require the defendant to have intended to commit the act, regardless of any further purpose or knowledge of its illegality. This distinction is crucial for determining the required mental state for various offenses.

Question 57: What is the primary purpose of the parol evidence rule in contract law?

To prevent oral modifications of written contracts
To allow consideration of all evidence in contract disputes
To require all contracts to be in writing
To exclude evidence of prior or contemporaneous agreements that contradict a fully integrated written agreement (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To exclude evidence of prior or contemporaneous agreements that contradict a fully integrated written agreement

The parol evidence rule prevents parties from introducing evidence of prior or contemporaneous oral or written agreements that contradict, vary, or add to the terms of a fully integrated written contract. Its primary purpose is to ensure that the final written agreement is considered the complete and exclusive expression of the parties' intent. This promotes certainty and finality in contractual agreements.

Question 58: Under Nevada's rape shield law (NRS 50.090), which of the following is the general rule regarding the admissibility of evidence about a sexual assault victim's past sexual conduct?

Evidence of a victim's past sexual conduct with persons other than the defendant is inadmissible except in limited statutory exceptions (Correct answer)
A victim's entire sexual history is freely admissible to assess the victim's credibility
Evidence of a victim's past sexual conduct is admissible only if the prosecution opens the door by questioning the victim about their sexual history
Past sexual conduct evidence is inadmissible only in cases involving minors

Correct answer: Evidence of a victim's past sexual conduct with persons other than the defendant is inadmissible except in limited statutory exceptions

NRS 50.090 prohibits admission of a sexual assault victim's past sexual conduct with anyone other than the defendant, subject only to narrow exceptions such as consent defense involving prior conduct with the defendant or to explain physical evidence.

Question 59: Under Nevada law, what is the residency requirement to file for divorce?

6 months
6 weeks (Correct answer)
3 months
30 days

Correct answer: 6 weeks

Under NRS 125.020, a plaintiff must have been a resident of Nevada for at least 6 weeks before filing for divorce.

Question 60: In Nevada, what document allows spouses to modify their community property rights before or during marriage?

Transmutation deed
Cohabitation agreement
Community property trust
Prenuptial or postnuptial agreement (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Prenuptial or postnuptial agreement

Nevada recognizes prenuptial agreements (before marriage) and postnuptial agreements (during marriage) under NRS Chapter 123A to alter community property rights.

Question 61: When can a Nevada court award permanent alimony?

Never — Nevada only awards rehabilitative alimony
Only in marriages lasting more than 20 years
When temporary alimony would not be appropriate given length of marriage and other factors (Correct answer)
Whenever a spouse requests it

Correct answer: When temporary alimony would not be appropriate given length of marriage and other factors

Nevada courts may award permanent alimony when rehabilitative alimony is insufficient, particularly in long marriages where a spouse cannot achieve financial independence.

Question 62: When a Nevada District Court grants a preliminary injunction, what must the moving party typically provide?

A personal guarantee
An appeal bond
A security bond (Correct answer)
A supersedeas bond

Correct answer: A security bond

Under NRCP 65(c), a court may issue a preliminary injunction only if the movant gives security in an amount the court considers proper to pay costs and damages if wrongfully enjoined.

Question 63: In Nevada, which privilege allows a client to refuse to disclose confidential communications made to an attorney for the purpose of seeking legal advice?

Common interest privilege
Spousal communications privilege
Attorney-client privilege (Correct answer)
Work-product doctrine

Correct answer: Attorney-client privilege

The attorney-client privilege under NRS 49.095 protects confidential communications between a lawyer and client made for the purpose of obtaining or providing legal advice.

Question 64: Under Nevada law, covenants running with the land in equity (equitable servitudes) require which element NOT needed for covenants at law?

Notice (Correct answer)
Intent to bind successors
Written instrument
Touch and concern the land

Correct answer: Notice

Equitable servitudes in Nevada require notice (actual, constructive, or inquiry) in addition to intent and touch-and-concern, but do not require privity of estate unlike legal covenants.

Question 65: Under Nevada discovery rules, how many interrogatories may a party serve without leave of court?

Unlimited
25 (Correct answer)
20
40

Correct answer: 25

Under NRCP 33(a)(1), a party may serve no more than 25 interrogatories, including all discrete subparts, without leave of court.

Question 66: Under Nevada's comparative fault system, what happens if a plaintiff is found 51% at fault?

Plaintiff recovers full damages reduced by defendant's fault
Plaintiff recovers 49% of damages
Plaintiff recovers 51% of damages
Plaintiff recovers nothing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Plaintiff recovers nothing

Nevada follows a modified comparative fault system under NRS 41.141, barring plaintiff recovery if the plaintiff is 50% or more at fault.

Question 67: Which of the following is NOT a typical component of the task memo in an MPT?

Instructions on the format of the document to be produced
A comprehensive outline of the expected answer (Correct answer)
Specific issues to be addressed
Identification of the relevant parties

Correct answer: A comprehensive outline of the expected answer

The task memo in an MPT provides crucial instructions, including the type of document to produce, the specific issues to address, and the relevant parties involved. However, it will not provide a comprehensive outline of the expected answer. Examinees are responsible for developing their own structure and analysis based on the provided facts and law, demonstrating their organizational and analytical skills.

Question 68: When authenticating a document in Nevada, the proponent must produce sufficient evidence to support a finding that the item is what the proponent claims it is. Which of the following is a self-authenticating document under the Nevada Rules of Evidence?

An official publication purportedly issued by a public authority (Correct answer)
A photocopy of a certified document where the certification itself has not been verified
A private business letter with a corporate letterhead
A handwritten personal diary found at a crime scene

Correct answer: An official publication purportedly issued by a public authority

Under NRS 52.075, official publications issued by public authority are self-authenticating and require no extrinsic evidence of authenticity to be admitted.

Question 69: Under Nevada law, grandparents may petition for visitation rights with a grandchild when:

The grandparents provided financial support
The parents agree to allow visitation
One parent is deceased or the parents are divorced or separated (Correct answer)
They lived with the child for any period

Correct answer: One parent is deceased or the parents are divorced or separated

Under NRS 125C.050, grandparents may petition for visitation when a parent is deceased, the parents are divorced or separated, or the child was born out of wedlock.

Question 70: Nevada's mandatory pro bono rule under RPC 6.1 states that lawyers:

Should aspire to provide 50 hours of pro bono service per year (Correct answer)
Must pay $500 to the Legal Aid fund if they cannot provide pro bono service
Are prohibited from charging fees to low-income clients
Must complete 20 hours of pro bono service annually

Correct answer: Should aspire to provide 50 hours of pro bono service per year

Nevada RPC 6.1 states that lawyers should aspire to render at least 50 hours of pro bono publico legal services per year, but this is aspirational, not mandatory.

Question 71: What is the format of the Nevada Law Exam?

Multiple-choice questions (Correct answer)
Essay questions
Oral examination
Performance test

Correct answer: Multiple-choice questions

The Nevada Law Exam is structured as a multiple-choice examination. This format assesses a candidate's knowledge of Nevada-specific laws and procedures through a series of objective questions. It differs from essay questions or performance tests, focusing on direct recall and application of state-specific legal rules.

Question 72: Under Nevada law, which interest in real property is NOT subject to the rule against perpetuities?

Contingent remainders
Charitable remainder trusts (Correct answer)
Options to purchase held by commercial lessees
Executory interests in fee simple

Correct answer: Charitable remainder trusts

Under NRS 111.103, charitable trusts are exempt from the rule against perpetuities in Nevada, allowing them to continue indefinitely.

Question 73: In Nevada, an adoption terminates all legal rights and duties of the biological parents unless which exception applies?

The adoptee is over age 14
The biological parent consents in writing
The biological parent is a Nevada resident
A stepparent adoption is involved (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A stepparent adoption is involved

Under NRS 127.160, a stepparent adoption does not automatically terminate the legal parental rights of the non-adopting biological parent who remains married to the adopting stepparent.

Question 74: Under Nevada RPC 8.3, an attorney who knows another attorney has committed a serious ethical violation must:

Report if the information is not protected by confidentiality (Correct answer)
Report within 30 days of learning of the violation
Immediately report to the Nevada State Bar
Report only if the violation resulted in client harm

Correct answer: Report if the information is not protected by confidentiality

Under Nevada RPC 8.3(a), a lawyer must report another lawyer's serious misconduct unless the information is protected by the duty of confidentiality under RPC 1.6.

Question 75: In Nevada, which defense completely excuses criminal liability based on the defendant's mental state at the time of the crime?

Guilty but mentally ill
Insanity defense (M'Naghten test) (Correct answer)
Diminished capacity
Intoxication defense

Correct answer: Insanity defense (M'Naghten test)

Nevada uses the M'Naghten test for the insanity defense under NRS 174.035, requiring that the defendant did not know the nature of the act or did not know it was wrong.

Question 76: Under NRCP, what is the mandatory initial disclosure deadline after the parties' Rule 16.1 conference?

14 days
21 days (Correct answer)
30 days
7 days

Correct answer: 21 days

Under NRCP 16.1, initial disclosures must be made within 21 days after the required discovery conference.

Question 77: Under Nevada law, which of the following is true regarding the admissibility of statements made during plea negotiations?

Statements made during plea negotiations are admissible for impeachment purposes even if the plea agreement is not reached
Statements made during plea negotiations are inadmissible to prove guilt if the negotiations are unsuccessful and the defendant goes to trial (Correct answer)
All statements made to a prosecutor during plea negotiations are admissible if the defendant later goes to trial
Statements made during plea negotiations are only inadmissible if the defendant expressly invokes the protection at the time of the statement

Correct answer: Statements made during plea negotiations are inadmissible to prove guilt if the negotiations are unsuccessful and the defendant goes to trial

NRS 48.125 and NRS 174.065 protect statements made during plea negotiations from being used against the defendant at trial to prove guilt, encouraging candid settlement discussions.

Question 78: Under Nevada law, which of the following correctly states the excited utterance exception to the hearsay rule?

A statement made while the declarant was in the course of perceiving a startling event, describing it in real time
Any spontaneous statement made without premeditation by a witness to a crime
A statement made immediately after an event, within five minutes of its occurrence
A statement relating to a startling event or condition made while the declarant was under the stress of excitement caused by the event (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A statement relating to a startling event or condition made while the declarant was under the stress of excitement caused by the event

NRS 51.095 defines the excited utterance as a statement relating to a startling event or condition made while the declarant was still under the stress of excitement caused by the event, with no strict time limit.

Question 79: Under Nevada law, what is the presumption regarding joint physical custody?

Joint physical custody is presumed in the best interests of the child (Correct answer)
Sole custody with the primary caregiver is presumed
There is no presumption
Shared custody is only available by parental agreement

Correct answer: Joint physical custody is presumed in the best interests of the child

Under NRS 125C.0025, Nevada law creates a presumption that joint physical custody is in the best interests of the child.

Question 80: In tort law, what is the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur used for?

To infer negligence from the circumstances of an accident (Correct answer)
To prove intentional torts
To establish strict liability
To calculate damages in personal injury cases

Correct answer: To infer negligence from the circumstances of an accident

The doctrine of res ipsa loquitur, meaning 'the thing speaks for itself,' allows a plaintiff to establish a prima facie case of negligence even without direct evidence of the defendant's conduct. It applies when the accident is of a type that ordinarily does not occur in the absence of negligence, was caused by an instrumentality exclusively within the defendant's control, and was not due to the plaintiff's own actions. This infers negligence from the circumstances.

Question 81: In Nevada, what is the redemption period after a non-judicial foreclosure sale?

There is no right of redemption after non-judicial foreclosure (Correct answer)
1 year
90 days
6 months

Correct answer: There is no right of redemption after non-judicial foreclosure

Nevada eliminated the post-sale right of redemption for non-judicial foreclosures under NRS 107.080; no statutory right of redemption exists after a trustee's sale.

Question 82: Which of the following is required for admission to the Nevada Bar?

Graduation from an ABA-accredited law school
Passing the Nevada Bar Exam
Completion of the Multistate Professional Responsibility Examination (MPRE)
All of the above (Correct answer)

Correct answer: All of the above

Admission to the Nevada Bar requires fulfilling several key criteria to ensure a candidate is professionally and academically qualified. Candidates must graduate from an ABA-accredited law school, pass the Multistate Professional Responsibility Examination (MPRE), and successfully pass the Nevada Bar Exam. All of these components are mandatory for licensure in Nevada.

Question 83: Under Nevada law, which of the following is true regarding lay opinion testimony?

A lay witness may give opinion testimony only after being qualified by the court
Lay opinion is admissible only on questions of value or damages
A lay witness may testify in the form of an opinion if it is rationally based on the witness's own perception and helpful to understanding the testimony (Correct answer)
Lay witnesses may never offer opinion testimony under any circumstances

Correct answer: A lay witness may testify in the form of an opinion if it is rationally based on the witness's own perception and helpful to understanding the testimony

NRS 50.265 permits lay opinion testimony that is rationally based on the witness's own perception, helpful to a clear understanding of the testimony, and not based on scientific or technical knowledge.

Question 84: In Nevada, a deed of trust involves which three parties?

Grantor, grantee, and recorder
Borrower, title company, and state
Mortgagor, mortgagee, and lender
Trustor, trustee, and beneficiary (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Trustor, trustee, and beneficiary

Nevada's deed of trust structure involves the trustor (borrower), the trustee (neutral third party holding title), and the beneficiary (lender).

Question 85: Under Nevada law, a landlord must provide how much notice to terminate a month-to-month tenancy?

14 days
45 days
30 days (Correct answer)
60 days

Correct answer: 30 days

Under NRS 40.251, a landlord must give a tenant at least 30 days' written notice to terminate a month-to-month tenancy.

Question 86: In Nevada, a notice of appeal from a District Court final judgment must be filed within how many days?

10 days
30 days (Correct answer)
20 days
60 days

Correct answer: 30 days

Under NRAP 4(a)(1), a notice of appeal must be filed within 30 days after entry of the judgment or order appealed from.

Question 87: Under Nevada law, a witness's prior inconsistent statement made under oath at a prior proceeding is admissible for which purpose?

As substantive evidence of the facts stated therein, as well as for impeachment (Correct answer)
Only to refresh the witness's recollection
For impeachment purposes only, never as substantive evidence
Only if the witness is now unavailable to testify

Correct answer: As substantive evidence of the facts stated therein, as well as for impeachment

Under NRS 51.035(2), a prior inconsistent statement made under oath at a prior trial, hearing, or deposition is not hearsay and is admissible as substantive evidence, not merely for impeachment.

Question 88: Nevada is which type of property state for marital assets?

Tenancy by the entirety state
Equitable distribution state
Common law property state
Community property state (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Community property state

Nevada is a community property state under NRS Chapter 123, meaning most property acquired during marriage is equally owned by both spouses.

Question 89: Which of the following best describes the best evidence rule as applied in Nevada courts?

Only the single most probative piece of evidence on any point may be admitted
All documentary evidence must be authenticated by a notary public before admission
Secondary evidence is always inadmissible if the original document exists
To prove the content of a writing, recording, or photograph, the original is ordinarily required (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To prove the content of a writing, recording, or photograph, the original is ordinarily required

Nevada's best evidence rule (NRS 52.235–52.285) provides that to prove the content of a writing, recording, or photograph, the original is ordinarily required, though exceptions allow duplicates and secondary evidence in certain circumstances.

Question 90: Which of the following best describes the standard for relevance under Nevada Rules of Evidence?

Evidence is relevant if it has any tendency to make a fact of consequence more or less probable than it would be without the evidence (Correct answer)
Evidence must be corroborated by at least one other piece of evidence to be relevant
Evidence is relevant only if it directly relates to an element of the claim or defense
Evidence is relevant only if it conclusively proves a material fact

Correct answer: Evidence is relevant if it has any tendency to make a fact of consequence more or less probable than it would be without the evidence

Under NRS 48.015, evidence is relevant if it has any tendency to make the existence of a fact of consequence to the determination of the action more or less probable than it would be without the evidence.

Question 91: Under Nevada law, alimony (spousal support) awards consider which factor?

The number of children only
Length of marriage only
The fault of either spouse exclusively
Both spouses' financial condition and ability to pay (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Both spouses' financial condition and ability to pay

Under NRS 125.150, Nevada courts weigh multiple factors for alimony including each spouse's financial condition, length of marriage, and standard of living established during the marriage.

Question 92: Under Nevada law, which element is NOT required for an implied easement by prior use?

Severance of ownership
Continuous and apparent use before severance
Strict necessity (Correct answer)
Prior common ownership of dominant and servient parcels

Correct answer: Strict necessity

An easement by implication from prior use requires common ownership, apparent and continuous prior use, and severance, but only requires reasonable necessity — not strict necessity.

Question 93: Which Nevada RPC provision prohibits sexual relations with a client where the relationship did not predate the representation?

RPC 1.9
RPC 1.7
RPC 8.4
RPC 1.8(j) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: RPC 1.8(j)

Nevada RPC 1.8(j) prohibits a lawyer from having sexual relations with a client unless a consensual sexual relationship existed between them when the lawyer-client relationship commenced.

Question 94: In Nevada, a mechanic's lien must be recorded within how many days of the completion of work?

90 days (Correct answer)
60 days
120 days
30 days

Correct answer: 90 days

Under NRS 108.226, a notice of lien for a mechanic's lien must be recorded within 90 days after the date the work or service was completed or materials were last furnished.

Question 95: In Nevada, which court hears appeals from the Justice Court?

Nevada Court of Appeals
Nevada Supreme Court
District Court (Correct answer)
Municipal Court

Correct answer: District Court

Appeals from Justice Court decisions are heard by the District Court in the same county.

Question 96: Under Nevada law, which plea allows a defendant to avoid admitting guilt while accepting punishment?

Conditional plea
No contest plea
Alford plea (Correct answer)
Guilty plea

Correct answer: Alford plea

An Alford plea, recognized in Nevada, allows a defendant to accept punishment without admitting factual guilt while acknowledging the prosecution could prove the charges.

Question 97: Under Nevada RPC, which of the following communications with represented parties is prohibited?

Communicating with a represented party's expert witness
Communicating with an unrepresented adverse party
Communicating with a represented party directly without consent of the party's lawyer (Correct answer)
Sending demand letters to represented parties

Correct answer: Communicating with a represented party directly without consent of the party's lawyer

Under Nevada RPC 4.2, a lawyer may not communicate directly with a person known to be represented by counsel without that counsel's consent or legal authorization.

Question 98: In Nevada, which of the following is a correct statement about the admission of evidence of subsequent remedial measures?

Such evidence is admissible in strict products liability cases as an exception
Such evidence is always admissible because it shows the defendant knew of the defect
Such evidence is inadmissible for any purpose in any Nevada civil or criminal proceeding
Such evidence is inadmissible to prove negligence or culpable conduct but may be admitted to prove ownership, control, or feasibility of precautionary measures (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Such evidence is inadmissible to prove negligence or culpable conduct but may be admitted to prove ownership, control, or feasibility of precautionary measures

NRS 48.085 (mirroring FRE 407) bars subsequent remedial measures to prove negligence or culpable conduct but allows admission to prove ownership, control, or feasibility when those are controverted.

Question 99: In Nevada, when must a preliminary hearing be held for a felony defendant in custody?

Within 15 judicial days
Within 30 days
Within 5 judicial days (Correct answer)
Within 48 hours

Correct answer: Within 5 judicial days

Under NRS 171.196, a defendant in custody charged with a felony must have a preliminary hearing within 15 judicial days of arraignment on the complaint.

Question 100: In Nevada, which standard governs all child custody and visitation determinations?

Parental fitness standard
Primary caregiver standard
Best interests of the child (Correct answer)
Tender years doctrine

Correct answer: Best interests of the child

Under NRS 125C.0035, all child custody determinations in Nevada are governed by the best interests of the child standard.

Question 101: Under Nevada RPC 3.5, an attorney is prohibited from which conduct regarding jurors?

Noting juror demeanor in open court
Requesting juror contact information through proper channels
Questioning jurors after a verdict with court permission
Communicating ex parte with jurors during trial (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Communicating ex parte with jurors during trial

Nevada RPC 3.5(a) prohibits ex parte communication with jurors during trial; unauthorized contact with deliberating or sitting jurors is a serious ethical violation.

Question 102: In Nevada, for a residential eviction for nonpayment of rent, a landlord must first serve which notice?

3-Day Notice to Quit
7-Day Notice to Pay or Quit
30-Day Notice to Vacate
5-Day Notice to Pay or Quit (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 5-Day Notice to Pay or Quit

Under NRS 40.253, a landlord must serve a 5-day Notice to Pay or Quit before filing an eviction action for nonpayment of rent in Nevada.

Question 103: In Nevada, separate property includes which of the following?

Business profits earned during marriage
Wages earned during marriage
Appreciation of community property
Property acquired by gift or inheritance during marriage (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Property acquired by gift or inheritance during marriage

Under NRS 123.130, property acquired by gift, bequest, devise, or descent during marriage remains separate property in Nevada.

Question 104: Under Nevada law, self-defense with deadly force requires the defendant to have which belief?

Actual belief that force was necessary
A prior history of abuse by the attacker
Certainty that the threat was real
Reasonable belief of imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Reasonable belief of imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm

Nevada's self-defense statute NRS 200.200 requires a reasonable belief that the defender faced imminent danger of death or serious bodily harm to justify deadly force.

Question 105: Under NRS 50.085, which of the following is an improper method of impeaching a witness in Nevada?

Demonstrating the witness has a bias or motive to lie
Introducing a prior felony conviction less than 10 years old
Presenting extrinsic evidence of a specific act of misconduct not resulting in a conviction to attack credibility (Correct answer)
Showing the witness made a prior inconsistent statement

Correct answer: Presenting extrinsic evidence of a specific act of misconduct not resulting in a conviction to attack credibility

Under NRS 50.085, specific acts of misconduct not resulting in a criminal conviction may only be raised on cross-examination and may not be proven by extrinsic evidence.

Question 106: Which Nevada court generally has jurisdiction over divorce, child custody, and adoption proceedings?

Justice Court
Municipal Court
Family Court (District Court division) (Correct answer)
Probate Court

Correct answer: Family Court (District Court division)

In Nevada, Family Court is a division of the District Court with subject matter jurisdiction over divorce, custody, child support, and adoption proceedings.

Question 107: Nevada RPC 5.3 requires attorneys to supervise which of the following?

Only paralegals, not legal secretaries
Nonlawyer assistants whose conduct may violate the Rules (Correct answer)
Only other licensed attorneys in the firm
Only contract attorneys, not in-house staff

Correct answer: Nonlawyer assistants whose conduct may violate the Rules

Under Nevada RPC 5.3, supervising attorneys must ensure that the conduct of nonlawyer assistants (paralegals, investigators, clerks) is compatible with the professional obligations of the lawyer.

Question 108: Under Nevada RPC 1.5, a contingency fee agreement must be:

In writing, signed by the client (Correct answer)
Orally agreed upon and confirmed by email
Filed with the court
Approved by the Nevada State Bar

Correct answer: In writing, signed by the client

Under Nevada RPC 1.5(c), a contingency fee agreement must be in a written agreement signed by the client setting out the method by which the fee is to be determined.

Question 109: Nevada's marketable title act requires what for a title to be marketable?

A judicial quiet title decree
A title insurance policy
A chain of title going back 40 years free of defects (Correct answer)
No encumbrances of any kind

Correct answer: A chain of title going back 40 years free of defects

Under NRS 111.315–111.365, Nevada's Marketable Title Act establishes that a 40-year root of title extinguishes most interests not re-recorded within the statutory period.

Question 110: Nevada's spousal privilege has two components. Which of the following correctly states the confidential marital communications privilege?

Either spouse may prevent the other from testifying about any matter observed during the marriage
The privilege applies only to written communications between spouses
A spouse may refuse to testify and may prevent the other spouse from testifying about confidential communications made during the marriage (Correct answer)
Only the testifying spouse may assert the privilege, not the non-testifying spouse

Correct answer: A spouse may refuse to testify and may prevent the other spouse from testifying about confidential communications made during the marriage

Under NRS 49.295, the confidential marital communications privilege allows either spouse to prevent disclosure of private communications made during the marriage, and either spouse may assert it.

Question 111: Under Nevada's law governing lawyer advertising (RPC 7.1), what is the primary standard?

All advertising is prohibited
Communications must not be false or misleading (Correct answer)
Advertising is limited to the Yellow Pages and bar directories
All advertising must be pre-approved by the State Bar

Correct answer: Communications must not be false or misleading

Under Nevada RPC 7.1, a lawyer may not make false or misleading communications about the lawyer or the lawyer's services; truthful advertising is permitted.

Question 112: In a Nevada criminal trial, which constitutional provision requires the judge to assess the voluntariness of a defendant's confession before admitting it into evidence?

The Sixth Amendment right to a speedy trial
The Fourth Amendment prohibition on unreasonable searches and seizures
The Eighth Amendment prohibition on cruel and unusual punishment
The Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination and the Due Process Clause (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The Fifth Amendment privilege against self-incrimination and the Due Process Clause

The Fifth Amendment's self-incrimination clause and the Due Process Clause require courts to assess whether a confession was voluntary before admitting it, ensuring it was not coerced by government action.

Question 113: Nevada's statute of limitations for written contract claims is:

6 years (Correct answer)
2 years
10 years
4 years

Correct answer: 6 years

Under NRS 11.190(1)(b), the statute of limitations for claims on a written contract is 6 years.

Question 114: Nevada recognizes which grounds for divorce?

Both fault and no-fault grounds (Correct answer)
Fault only
Only incompatibility
No-fault only

Correct answer: Both fault and no-fault grounds

Nevada allows divorce on no-fault grounds (incompatibility or living separate and apart for one year) and on fault grounds under NRS 125.010.

Question 115: In Nevada civil practice, which pleading defense must be raised in the first responsive pleading or it is waived?

Statute of limitations
Lack of subject matter jurisdiction
Improper venue (Correct answer)
Failure to state a claim

Correct answer: Improper venue

Under NRCP 12(h)(1), defenses including improper venue must be raised in the first responsive pleading or by pre-answer motion or they are waived.

Question 116: Under Nevada law, which deed provides the greatest protection to a buyer by warranting title against all claims?

Quitclaim deed
General warranty deed (Correct answer)
Special warranty deed
Grant deed

Correct answer: General warranty deed

A general warranty deed provides the broadest title protection, warranting the title against all claims by any person whether arising before or during the grantor's ownership.

Question 117: Nevada's legal separation differs from divorce primarily in that:

It requires longer residency
The parties remain legally married (Correct answer)
It does not address child custody
It does not divide community property

Correct answer: The parties remain legally married

A legal separation in Nevada resolves property, support, and custody issues but the parties remain legally married and cannot remarry.

Question 118: Under NRS 48.045 (Nevada's equivalent of FRE 404), evidence of a defendant's prior crimes or bad acts is generally inadmissible to prove character but may be admitted to prove which of the following?

Victim's contributory negligence
That the defendant is likely to reoffend
General propensity to commit crimes
Motive, opportunity, intent, preparation, plan, knowledge, identity, or absence of mistake (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Motive, opportunity, intent, preparation, plan, knowledge, identity, or absence of mistake

NRS 48.045(2) allows prior acts evidence for non-character purposes such as proving motive, opportunity, intent, preparation, plan, knowledge, identity, or absence of mistake or accident.

Question 119: Under Nevada law, which standard governs a trial court's decision to exclude relevant evidence under NRS 48.035 (equivalent to FRE 403)?

The court must exclude relevant evidence whenever any prejudice to the opposing party is demonstrated
The court may exclude relevant evidence if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, or misleading the jury (Correct answer)
The court may exclude relevant evidence only in criminal cases, not in civil proceedings
The court may exclude relevant evidence only when it is cumulative and another piece of evidence covers the same point

Correct answer: The court may exclude relevant evidence if its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, or misleading the jury

NRS 48.035 permits exclusion of relevant evidence when its probative value is substantially outweighed by the danger of unfair prejudice, confusion of the issues, misleading the jury, undue delay, waste of time, or needless presentation of cumulative evidence.

Question 120: Nevada uses which grand jury standard for returning an indictment?

Beyond a reasonable doubt
Probable cause (Correct answer)
Clear and convincing evidence
Preponderance of evidence

Correct answer: Probable cause

A Nevada grand jury returns an indictment when it finds probable cause to believe the defendant committed the charged offense.

Question 121: Under Nevada RPC 1.9, a lawyer's duty to a former client includes which prohibition?

Working for any party adverse to the former client in any matter
Communicating with the former client without prior approval
Using information from the former representation to that client's disadvantage (Correct answer)
Never working in the same practice area as the former representation

Correct answer: Using information from the former representation to that client's disadvantage

Under Nevada RPC 1.9(c), a lawyer must not use information relating to a former representation to the disadvantage of the former client, except as otherwise permitted.

Question 122: In Nevada, what is the required jury size for a civil jury trial in District Court?

10 jurors
8 jurors
12 jurors (Correct answer)
6 jurors

Correct answer: 12 jurors

Nevada Constitution Article 1, Section 3, requires 12 jurors for civil jury trials in District Court unless the parties stipulate otherwise.

Question 123: Nevada's 'Stand Your Ground' law eliminates which traditional self-defense requirement?

The honest belief requirement
The duty to retreat before using force (Correct answer)
The proportionality requirement
The imminence requirement

Correct answer: The duty to retreat before using force

Nevada's Stand Your Ground law under NRS 200.190 removes the duty to retreat before using force in a place where the defender has a legal right to be.

Question 124: Which conduct constitutes 'moral turpitude' warranting discipline under Nevada RPC 8.4?

Committing a criminal act reflecting adversely on fitness to practice (Correct answer)
Charging fees that a client later disputes
Filing a motion the opposing party considers frivolous
Losing a case due to poor judgment

Correct answer: Committing a criminal act reflecting adversely on fitness to practice

Under Nevada RPC 8.4(b), it is misconduct for a lawyer to commit a criminal act that reflects adversely on the lawyer's honesty, trustworthiness, or fitness as a lawyer.

Question 125: In Nevada, prior consistent statements of a witness are admissible as non-hearsay substantive evidence when offered to rebut which type of allegation?

An express or implied charge of recent fabrication, improper influence, or improper motive (Correct answer)
Any challenge to the witness's credibility raised by the opposing party
An allegation that the witness's memory has faded since the event occurred
An allegation that the witness exaggerated their testimony on direct examination

Correct answer: An express or implied charge of recent fabrication, improper influence, or improper motive

Under NRS 51.035(2)(b), a prior consistent statement is admissible as substantive evidence when offered to rebut an express or implied charge of recent fabrication or improper influence or motive, provided the statement was made before the alleged fabrication or motive arose.

Question 126: Nevada RPC 1.7 addresses which type of conflict of interest?

Former client conflicts
Current client conflicts (Correct answer)
Third-party payor conflicts
Government attorney conflicts

Correct answer: Current client conflicts

Nevada RPC 1.7 governs current client conflicts of interest, prohibiting representation that creates a concurrent conflict unless specific conditions are met.

Question 127: Nevada's homestead exemption protects what maximum amount of equity in a primary residence from creditors?

$250,000
$605,000
$100,000
$550,000 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: $550,000

Under NRS 21.090(1)(l), Nevada's homestead exemption protects up to $550,000 in equity in a primary residence from general creditor claims.

Question 128: Under Nevada law, which of the following is NOT an element of burglary?

Intent to commit a felony therein
Nighttime entry (Correct answer)
Unlawful entry
Entering a structure

Correct answer: Nighttime entry

Nevada's burglary statute NRS 205.060 does not require nighttime entry; the common law element of nighttime has been eliminated in modern Nevada law.

Question 129: In Nevada, what is the statute of limitations for adverse possession?

10 years
15 years (Correct answer)
5 years
20 years

Correct answer: 15 years

Under NRS 11.070, the statute of limitations for adverse possession in Nevada is 15 years of continuous, open, hostile, exclusive, and actual possession.

Question 130: In Nevada, driving under the influence (DUI) with a blood alcohol content at or above what level is per se illegal?

0.06%
0.10%
0.12%
0.08% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 0.08%

Under NRS 484C.110, it is per se illegal to drive with a blood alcohol concentration of 0.08% or higher in Nevada.

Question 131: Under Nevada RPC 1.8(a), a lawyer entering a business transaction with a client must ensure all of the following EXCEPT:

The Nevada State Bar approves the transaction (Correct answer)
Client is advised in writing to seek independent counsel
Terms are fair and reasonable to the client
Terms are disclosed in writing

Correct answer: The Nevada State Bar approves the transaction

Nevada RPC 1.8(a) requires fair terms, written disclosure, and advice to seek independent counsel, but does not require State Bar approval of attorney-client business transactions.

Nevada Bar Examination (NV Bar)

The Nevada Bar Examination is a 2.5-day jurisdiction-specific exam consisting of the Multistate Bar Examination (MBE), Nevada Performance Tests (NPT), and Nevada essay questions. Candidates must achieve a combined scaled score of at least 138 out of 200 to pass.

200

Questions

360 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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These practice questions were written with AI tools. They are not real exam questions. Exam facts are checked against the official sources listed below. Not reviewed by a subject-matter expert. Editorial policy

Sources & references

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nvbar.org — Score validity, registration, score release, exam format, late registration, retake policy, test delivery, eligibility, registration deadline, fees · verified Oct 2026
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