FREE NPTE-PT Test Musculoskeletal System Examination Questions and Answers Flashcards

A patient presents with a positive Neer impingement test and painful arc between 60-120 degrees of shoulder abduction. Which structure is MOST likely involved?

Answer: Supraspinatus tendon

The supraspinatus tendon is most commonly impinged beneath the coracoacromial arch during mid-range abduction.

During gait analysis, a patient demonstrates a Trendelenburg sign on the left side. Which muscle is MOST likely weakened?

Answer: Left gluteus medius

A Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius on the stance limb side, causing the contralateral pelvis to drop.

A patient who sustained a posterior hip dislocation is at greatest risk for injury to which nerve?

Answer: Sciatic nerve

The sciatic nerve courses posterior to the hip joint and is most vulnerable during posterior dislocations.

Which type of end-feel would a physical therapist expect when assessing knee extension in a patient with a large joint effusion?

Answer: Soft end-feel

A soft or boggy end-feel at knee extension is characteristic of significant joint effusion due to fluid accumulation.

A patient with lateral epicondylalgia reports pain with resisted wrist extension and gripping. Which muscle tendon is the PRIMARY site of pathology?

Answer: Extensor carpi radialis brevis

The extensor carpi radialis brevis origin at the lateral epicondyle is the most common site of tendinopathy in lateral epicondylalgia.

A 55-year-old patient presents with progressive thoracic kyphosis, loss of height, and a recent vertebral compression fracture at T12. Which condition is the MOST likely underlying cause?

Answer: Osteoporosis

Osteoporosis is the most common cause of atraumatic vertebral compression fractures with progressive kyphosis in postmenopausal and older adults.