NPTE-PT FREE NPTE-PT Test Musculoskeletal System Examination Questions and Answers 2 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A patient presents with a positive Neer impingement test and painful arc between 60-120 degrees of shoulder abduction. Which structure is MOST likely involved?
- Supraspinatus tendon (Correct answer)
- Infraspinatus tendon
- Subscapularis tendon
- Teres minor tendon
Correct answer: Supraspinatus tendon
The supraspinatus tendon is most commonly impinged beneath the coracoacromial arch during mid-range abduction.
Question 2: During gait analysis, a patient demonstrates a Trendelenburg sign on the left side. Which muscle is MOST likely weakened?
- Left gluteus medius (Correct answer)
- Right gluteus medius
- Left iliopsoas
- Right adductor longus
Correct answer: Left gluteus medius
A Trendelenburg sign indicates weakness of the gluteus medius on the stance limb side, causing the contralateral pelvis to drop.
Question 3: A patient who sustained a posterior hip dislocation is at greatest risk for injury to which nerve?
- Sciatic nerve (Correct answer)
- Femoral nerve
- Obturator nerve
- Superior gluteal nerve
Correct answer: Sciatic nerve
The sciatic nerve courses posterior to the hip joint and is most vulnerable during posterior dislocations.
Question 4: Which type of end-feel would a physical therapist expect when assessing knee extension in a patient with a large joint effusion?
- Soft end-feel (Correct answer)
- Hard end-feel
- Capsular end-feel
- Empty end-feel
Correct answer: Soft end-feel
A soft or boggy end-feel at knee extension is characteristic of significant joint effusion due to fluid accumulation.
Question 5: A patient with lateral epicondylalgia reports pain with resisted wrist extension and gripping. Which muscle tendon is the PRIMARY site of pathology?
- Extensor carpi radialis brevis (Correct answer)
- Extensor digitorum
- Extensor carpi ulnaris
- Brachioradialis
Correct answer: Extensor carpi radialis brevis
The extensor carpi radialis brevis origin at the lateral epicondyle is the most common site of tendinopathy in lateral epicondylalgia.
Question 6: A 55-year-old patient presents with progressive thoracic kyphosis, loss of height, and a recent vertebral compression fracture at T12. Which condition is the MOST likely underlying cause?
- Osteoporosis (Correct answer)
- Osteoarthritis
- Ankylosing spondylitis
- Scheuermann disease
Correct answer: Osteoporosis
Osteoporosis is the most common cause of atraumatic vertebral compression fractures with progressive kyphosis in postmenopausal and older adults.
NPTE-PT FREE NPTE-PT Test Musculoskeletal System Examination Questions and Answers 2
A patient presents with a positive Neer impingement test and painful arc between 60-120 degrees of shoulder abduction.
Which structure is MOST likely involved?