NMC OSCE Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield NMC OSCE facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. When reconstituting a powdered antibiotic for intravenous administration, which document should you consult for specific dilution instructions? → The Summary of Product Characteristics (SmPC) or local injectable medicines guide
2. According to the NMC Code, what does 'preserving safety' require in relation to prescribing? → Only prescribing within legal frameworks and your competence
3. A patient has a known diagnosis of COPD with a target SpO2 of 88–92%. How should their SpO2 be scored in NEWS2? → Using Scale 2 (designed for patients with hypercapnic respiratory failure)
4. When performing a head-to-toe patient assessment, which system should be assessed first if the patient appears acutely unwell? → Airway, Breathing, Circulation using the ABCDE approach
5. When performing capillary blood glucose monitoring, which finger should ideally be used and where on the finger should the lancet be applied? → The side of any finger except the thumb and index finger, avoiding the fingertip centre
6. Which GCS score indicates a severe brain injury? → GCS 8 or below
7. A patient refuses a recommended treatment. According to the NMC Code, what must the nurse do? → Respect the decision and ensure they are informed of consequences
8. A patient's blood pressure is recorded as 88/56 mmHg and they have a respiratory rate of 26 breaths per minute. What is the most appropriate immediate action? → Escalate immediately to the medical team and apply ABCDE approach
9. A patient is on warfarin and is prescribed a new course of ciprofloxacin. What is the key concern? → Ciprofloxacin inhibits warfarin metabolism, increasing bleeding risk
10. In England, which organisation is responsible for conducting Section 42 safeguarding enquiries for adults? → The local authority
11. When measuring blood pressure manually, where should the lower edge of the cuff be positioned? → Approximately 2-3 cm above the antecubital fossa
12. A patient becomes aggressive on the ward. Which de-escalation technique is most appropriate? → Use a calm, non-threatening tone, acknowledge their feelings, and maintain a safe distance
13. When performing a pain assessment, which validated tool should be used for a patient who is unable to communicate verbally? → Abbey Pain Scale or FLACC scale (observational behavioural tools)
14. When assessing fluid balance, which clinical sign most reliably indicates dehydration in an adult patient? → Reduced skin turgor when pinching the skin over the sternum or clavicle
15. What is the significance of a drug having a narrow therapeutic index? → A small difference between therapeutic and toxic doses requires careful monitoring
16. A prescription states: 'Amoxicillin 500mg TDS PO for 7 days.' How many doses should the patient receive in total? → 21 doses (3 times daily for 7 days)
17. Which piece of legislation provides the legal framework for safeguarding adults in England? → Care Act 2014
18. A patient with diabetes is found unresponsive. A blood glucose reading shows 1.8 mmol/L. What is the priority intervention? → Administer IV 10% glucose or glucagon if IV access is unavailable
19. What colour clinical waste bag is used for infectious clinical waste in England? → Yellow
20. Under the NMC Code, what must a nurse do before sharing patient information with another healthcare professional? → Share only on a need-to-know basis for direct care purposes
21. The Mental Capacity Act 2005 is underpinned by five key principles. Which of the following correctly states the first principle? → A person must be assumed to have capacity unless it is established that they lack it
22. What is the correct order for donning (putting on) PPE before entering an isolation room? → Apron, mask, eye protection, gloves
23. Which of the following behaviours in a nurse would constitute professional boundary violation in relation to a vulnerable patient? → Establishing a personal relationship or friendship with the patient
24. A patient with a learning disability is being consented for surgery. Which approach best supports their ability to make an informed decision? → Provide information in an accessible format (easy read, pictures) and allow extra time
25. According to NICE guidelines, when should a wound swab be taken for microbiological analysis? → When clinical signs of infection are present
26. MRSA stands for methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus. A patient screens positive for MRSA on admission. What precautions are required? → Contact precautions: side room, apron and gloves for contact with patient/environment
27. A nurse finds that the count in the controlled drugs cupboard does not match the register. What is the correct immediate action? → Report the discrepancy to the person in charge immediately
28. How long should a peripheral IV cannula site be assessed daily for signs of phlebitis? → Every 24 hours using a standardised phlebitis score
29. According to NMC standards, what are the five rights of medication administration that must be verified before giving any medicine? → Right patient, right drug, right dose, right route, right time
30. What does SBAR stand for in the context of clinical communication? → Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation