NMC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield NMC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. What must a registrant declare as part of the health and character declaration during NMC revalidation? → Criminal convictions and any health conditions that may affect fitness to practise
2. A nurse is caring for a patient in droplet precautions. At what distance from the patient should a surgical mask be worn? → Within 3 feet (approximately 1 meter)
3. Which of the following is an example of institutional abuse? → A care home routinely denying residents the right to make choices
4. During a busy night shift, a colleague appears visibly distressed and is making repeated documentation errors. As the shift leader, what should you do first? → Remove the colleague from patient care and speak with them privately about their wellbeing
5. A nurse notices another nurse documenting care that was not actually provided. The appropriate response is to: → Raise the concern through the appropriate reporting channels
6. Patient information shared in confidence may be disclosed without patient consent when: → There is a serious and identifiable risk of harm to the patient or to others
7. In patient safety terminology, a 'near miss' is defined as: → An error that was identified and corrected before it reached the patient
8. Choose the appropriate indication for you to provide information about a patient to a police officer. → If the patient has the potential to do urgent and significant damage to themself.
9. A midwife suspects a safeguarding concern involving a child in the family of a patient. What does the NMC Code require? → Act on concerns immediately and follow local safeguarding procedures
10. Which organisation is responsible for investigating fitness to practise concerns about nurses and midwives in the UK? → Nursing and Midwifery Council
11. A nurse is educating a patient about home injection technique. Which instruction is most important for preventing local site infection? → Cleanse the injection site with an alcohol swab and allow it to dry before injecting
12. Your patient will lose consciousness following a lumbar puncture. What will be the cause? → Cerebral Spinal fluid (CSF) leakage
13. Effective closed-loop communication during an emergency requires: → The receiver reads back the instruction and the sender confirms it is correct
14. When collecting blood via venepuncture using a vacutainer system, what is the correct ORDER of draw? → Blood culture bottles → coagulation tubes → EDTA tubes
15. A nurse notices discrepancies between what a patient says they want and what is documented in their care plan. What is the priority action? → Clarify the patient's current wishes and update the care plan to reflect them accurately
16. Which patient group requires SPECIAL consideration when fulfilling the duty of candour according to NMC guidance? → Patients who lack capacity to understand the disclosure
17. A nurse raises a safeguarding concern with their line manager, who dismisses it without taking action. The most appropriate next step is to: → Escalate the concern to the named safeguarding lead or a more senior manager
18. Where should a tourniquet be applied when controlling severe limb hemorrhage? → 5–8 cm proximal to the wound
19. Which of the following is an example of non-verbal communication that conveys empathy? → Maintaining appropriate eye contact and leaning slightly forward
20. A patient with a known penicillin allergy is prescribed amoxicillin. What should the nurse do? → Withhold the medication and contact the prescriber immediately
21. During a clinical handover, the oncoming nurse should: → Actively clarify any unclear or incomplete information received
22. Which structured communication tool is widely recommended in NHS settings to improve handover safety and team communication? → SBAR
23. A nurse observes a visitor entering a contact-precaution room without donning a gown. What should the nurse do? → Inform the visitor of the requirement and provide appropriate PPE before entry
24. Which principle is most central to conducting a safeguarding enquiry for a vulnerable adult? → Proportionality — responses should be proportionate to the risk and individual need
25. Under the NMC Code, a nurse should raise a patient safety concern: → Immediately upon identifying a risk, even if it means conflict
26. Which patient position is MOST beneficial for a patient experiencing acute pulmonary edema? → High Fowler's (sitting upright at 90°)
27. The NMC Code's requirement for nurses to 'act without delay if you believe there is a risk to patient safety' reflects which professional duty? → The duty of candour and professional advocacy
28. A nurse obtains a blood glucose reading of 2.8 mmol/L on a conscious patient. What is the PRIORITY nursing action? → Administer oral glucose and recheck in 15 minutes
29. Under NMC revalidation requirements, how often must a registered nurse confirm their practice and renew their registration? → Every three years
30. Under NMC guidance, nursing documentation should be: → Accurate, factual, and recorded as soon as possible after events