NMC CBT Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield NMC CBT facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Which of the following correctly describes the legal status of a Lasting Power of Attorney (LPA) for Health and Welfare? → An LPA for Health and Welfare only activates when the donor lacks mental capacity
2. Heparin 25,000 units is added to 250 mL of 0.9% saline. The infusion runs at 20 mL/hour. How many units per hour does the patient receive? → 2,000 units/hr
3. A patient has C. difficile infection. Which hand hygiene method is required and why? → Soap and water because alcohol does not destroy C. diff spores
4. A patient is prescribed digoxin 125 micrograms orally. The available tablets are 62.5 micrograms each. How many tablets should be given? → 2 tablets
5. A neonate weighing 3.2 kg is prescribed caffeine citrate 20 mg/kg as a loading dose. The solution is 10 mg/mL. How many mL are required? → 6.4 mL
6. What does the term 'duty of candour' require of registered nurses in the UK? → Being open and honest with patients when something goes wrong that causes harm
7. Why is an accurate measurement of a patient's respiratory rate considered a crucial part of routine observations? → It is often the earliest and most sensitive indicator of clinical deterioration.
8. A child weighing 22 kg is prescribed paracetamol at 15 mg/kg. The oral suspension contains 250 mg in 5 mL. What volume should be administered? → 6.6 mL
9. Which piece of UK legislation places a statutory duty on certain organisations to have 'due regard' to preventing people from being drawn into terrorism? → Counter-Terrorism and Security Act 2015 (Prevent duty)
10. A patient taking MAOIs (monoamine oxidase inhibitors) asks about dietary restrictions. Which food is most dangerous for this patient? → Mature cheese (e.g., cheddar)
11. When administering eye drops, how far should the dropper be held from the eye to prevent contamination and injury? → 1–2 cm
12. A portable O2 cylinder contains 340 litres. At 15 L/min for a 60% Venturi mask, how long will it last? → About 23 minutes
13. A patient takes warfarin. Which blood test monitors its effect, and what is the typical target INR range? → INR, target 2.0-3.0
14. A nurse discovers a 14-year-old is being recruited to carry drugs for an organised crime group. Which safeguarding term BEST applies? → Child criminal exploitation (CCE) / county lines
15. When performing a manual blood pressure measurement, the nurse should place the stethoscope diaphragm over which artery? → Brachial artery
16. A patient on a general ward is found to have a NEWS2 score of 7. What is the most appropriate immediate action? → Inform the nurse in charge and consider urgent clinical review
17. A parent refuses to allow a nurse to examine a child with suspected non-accidental injuries. What should the nurse do? → Contact the safeguarding team and, if necessary, the police to secure the child's safety
18. Which leadership style involves collaborative decision-making with the team? → Democratic leadership
19. A patient is admitted with suspected dehydration. Which clinical sign is MOST consistent with moderate dehydration? → Dry mucous membranes and reduced skin turgor
20. You need to administer 30 mg of a drug that is available as a 50 mg/2 mL solution. What volume in mL do you need to draw up? → 1.2 mL
21. A patient's urine output over 8 hours was 360 mL. What is the hourly urine output? → 45 mL/hr
22. Which of the following is classified as a 'Never Event' by NHS England? → Wrong site surgery
23. A patient with COPD has an SpO2 of 82%. Which action is MOST appropriate? → Target SpO2 88–92% with controlled oxygen and escalate
24. Which waste bin is used for infectious clinical waste requiring incineration? → Yellow bin with yellow lid
25. A patient taking warfarin should be advised to report which of the following symptoms to their doctor immediately? → Unexplained bruising or bleeding
26. A patient is prescribed warfarin and starts taking ibuprofen for joint pain. What is the primary concern with this drug interaction? → Increased bleeding risk due to enhanced anticoagulant effect
27. In the context of infection prevention, what does 'contact precautions' specifically require? → Use of gloves and apron before entering the patient's environment
28. Which of the following is the correct action when using an AED and the device advises 'no shock indicated'? → Begin chest compressions immediately
29. A patient's pain score rises from 3/10 to 8/10 after physiotherapy. Their BP is 160/100 and HR is 104. Which action is MOST appropriate? → Assess the cause of pain, escalate to prescriber, and monitor vital signs
30. A patient develops hypoglycaemia (BM 2.1 mmol/L) and is drowsy but able to swallow. What is the MOST appropriate initial treatment? → 15-20g of fast-acting carbohydrate orally