NEX NLN Nursing Entrance Exam — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A physician orders 500 mg of a medication. The medication is available in 250 mg tablets. How many tablets should the nurse administer?

1 tablet
1.5 tablets
0.5 tablets
2 tablets (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 2 tablets

To solve this, use the formula: Dose Ordered / Dose on Hand. In this case, 500 mg (ordered) divided by 250 mg (on hand) equals 2. The nurse should administer 2 tablets.

Question 2: Which of the following best describes an exothermic reaction?

Absorbs heat from the surroundings
Releases heat to the surroundings (Correct answer)
Requires a catalyst to proceed
Occurs only at high temperatures

Correct answer: Releases heat to the surroundings

An exothermic reaction releases energy in the form of heat to its surroundings, resulting in a net decrease in the energy of the system.

Question 3: What is the difference between clinical reasoning and clinical judgment in nursing practice?

They are identical concepts used interchangeably
Clinical reasoning is used only by physicians, not nurses
Clinical reasoning is the thinking process; clinical judgment is the conclusion reached (Correct answer)
Clinical judgment occurs first, followed by clinical reasoning

Correct answer: Clinical reasoning is the thinking process; clinical judgment is the conclusion reached

Clinical reasoning refers to the cognitive process of analyzing and synthesizing patient data, while clinical judgment is the conclusion or decision that results from that reasoning process.

Question 4: Which study technique has been proven most effective for long-term retention of information?

Reading notes repeatedly (rereading)
Highlighting important text passages
Spaced repetition combined with active recall (Correct answer)
Studying for 8+ hours in a single session

Correct answer: Spaced repetition combined with active recall

Spaced repetition (reviewing material at increasing intervals) combined with active recall (testing yourself without looking at notes) has been shown by research to produce the strongest long-term memory retention.

Question 5: What is the term for the movement of molecules from an area of higher concentration to lower concentration without the use of energy?

Endocytosis
Passive diffusion (Correct answer)
Active transport
Facilitated diffusion

Correct answer: Passive diffusion

Passive diffusion is the spontaneous net movement of molecules from a region of higher concentration to lower concentration driven by the concentration gradient, requiring no energy.

Question 6: Blood leaving the left ventricle is pumped into which major blood vessel?

Pulmonary artery
Pulmonary vein
Aorta (Correct answer)
Superior vena cava

Correct answer: Aorta

The left ventricle is the heart's main pumping chamber, and it ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta. The aorta is the largest artery in the body, distributing this blood to the systemic circulation.

Question 7: Which resource is MOST valuable for nursing entrance exam preparation?

Generic standardized test prep books not specific to nursing exams
Social media study groups without verified information
Official practice tests and study guides from the exam publisher (ATI or Elsevier) (Correct answer)
Advice from friends who took the exam years ago

Correct answer: Official practice tests and study guides from the exam publisher (ATI or Elsevier)

Official practice tests and study guides from the exam publisher (ATI for TEAS, Elsevier for HESI) provide the most accurate representation of actual exam content, question format, and difficulty level.

Question 8: Which nitrogenous base is found in RNA but NOT in DNA?

Cytosine
Adenine
Guanine
Uracil (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Uracil

RNA contains uracil (U) in place of thymine (T), which is exclusively found in DNA, making uracil the base unique to RNA.

Question 9: What is the purpose of a personal statement or essay in the nursing program application?

To evaluate the applicant's knowledge of medical terminology
To test the applicant's creative writing ability
To assess the applicant's research skills
To demonstrate the applicant's motivation, experiences, and suitability for nursing (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To demonstrate the applicant's motivation, experiences, and suitability for nursing

The personal statement allows applicants to demonstrate their motivation for choosing nursing, relevant life experiences, personal qualities, and understanding of the profession beyond what grades and test scores can show.

Question 10: A nurse is to administer 2 liters of IV fluid over 24 hours using a microdrip set (60 gtt/mL). What is the drip rate?

42 gtt/min
63 gtt/min
83 gtt/min (Correct answer)
125 gtt/min

Correct answer: 83 gtt/min

Flow rate = (2000 mL × 60 gtt/mL) / (24 × 60 min) = 120,000 / 1,440 = 83.3, rounded to 83 gtt/min.

Question 11: A hospital floor has 24 patients. If 3/8 are on fluid restrictions and 1/6 of those on fluid restrictions are diabetic, how many patients are both on fluid restrictions and diabetic?

1.5 (Correct answer)
3
1
2

Correct answer: 1.5

Patients on fluid restrictions: 24 × 3/8 = 9. Diabetic among those: 9 × 1/6 = 1.5. Since we can't have half a patient, this rounds to approximately 1.5, but the mathematical answer is 1.5.

Question 12: A patient presents with a blood pressure of 90/60 mmHg and a heart rate of 110 bpm. This compensatory mechanism is mediated primarily by which system?

Parasympathetic nervous system
Somatic nervous system
Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
Sympathetic nervous system (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sympathetic nervous system

The sympathetic nervous system triggers a rapid heart rate increase (tachycardia) as an immediate compensatory response to low blood pressure (hypotension).

Question 13: What is the normal resting cardiac output for an average adult?

5-6 liters per minute (Correct answer)
8-10 liters per minute
12-15 liters per minute
2-3 liters per minute

Correct answer: 5-6 liters per minute

Normal resting cardiac output is approximately 5-6 liters per minute, calculated as stroke volume multiplied by heart rate.

Question 14: What is the most common exam format used in nursing entrance exams?

True or False
Essay-based
Oral interview
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Most nursing entrance exams use multiple-choice questions (MCQs) as the standard format. This allows for efficient testing of a wide range of topics, such as biology, chemistry, and general knowledge, in a short amount of time.

Question 15: Which chamber of the heart is the first to receive deoxygenated blood returning from the body?

Right ventricle
Right atrium (Correct answer)
Left atrium
Left ventricle

Correct answer: Right atrium

The right atrium is the receiving chamber for deoxygenated blood from the systemic circuit via the superior and inferior vena cava. From the right atrium, blood flows to the right ventricle, then to the lungs for oxygenation.

Question 16: In the chemical reaction Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂, the products are:

Zn and ZnCl₂
ZnCl₂ and H₂ (Correct answer)
HCl and H₂
Zn and HCl

Correct answer: ZnCl₂ and H₂

In a chemical equation, the substances on the left side of the arrow are the reactants (what you start with). The substances on the right side of the arrow are the products (what is formed).

Question 17: Which electrolyte imbalance is most dangerous for cardiac function and can cause fatal arrhythmias?

Hypomagnesemia
Hyponatremia
Hyperkalemia (Correct answer)
Hypocalcemia

Correct answer: Hyperkalemia

Hyperkalemia (elevated potassium) is extremely dangerous because it disrupts the electrical conduction system of the heart and can lead to ventricular fibrillation or asystole.

Question 18: Which blood vessel carries deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs?

Pulmonary vein
Superior vena cava
Aorta
Pulmonary artery (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Pulmonary artery

The pulmonary artery carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs for gas exchange, making it the only artery that carries deoxygenated blood.

Question 19: Which of the following is an example of a decomposition reaction?

NaCl + AgNO₃ → AgCl + NaNO₃
CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
2H₂O → 2H₂ + O₂ (Correct answer)
2H₂ + O₂ → 2H₂O

Correct answer: 2H₂O → 2H₂ + O₂

The breakdown of water into hydrogen and oxygen is a decomposition reaction because a single compound breaks down into two or more simpler substances.

Question 20: Which organelle is primarily responsible for producing ATP (energy) in a cell?

Mitochondria (Correct answer)
Golgi apparatus
Ribosome
Nucleus

Correct answer: Mitochondria

Mitochondria carry out cellular respiration to generate ATP, earning the nickname 'powerhouse of the cell.'

Question 21: A wound irrigation requires a 0.9% normal saline solution. How many grams of sodium chloride are in 1 liter of this solution?

0.09 g
90 g
0.9 g
9 g (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 9 g

A 0.9% solution contains 0.9 grams of solute per 100 mL. In 1,000 mL (1 liter): 0.9 × 10 = 9 grams.

Question 22: What is the term for programmed, regulated cell death that removes damaged or unwanted cells without causing inflammation?

Metastasis
Necrosis
Mitosis
Apoptosis (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Apoptosis

Apoptosis is a regulated process of programmed cell death essential for normal development, immune function, and elimination of damaged cells.

Question 23: A student struggles with the math section of practice tests. Which targeted preparation strategy would be most helpful?

Skip the math section and focus on other areas where they score higher
Practice basic operations daily, master dosage calculation formulas, and work through progressively harder problems (Correct answer)
Only work on the easiest math problems to build confidence
Purchase an advanced calculus textbook

Correct answer: Practice basic operations daily, master dosage calculation formulas, and work through progressively harder problems

Targeted math improvement requires daily practice starting with fundamentals, mastering the specific formulas tested (fractions, ratios, dosage calculations), and progressively increasing difficulty to build competence.

Question 24: A patient chart notes the following: fatigue, unintended weight loss, and persistent cough for the last month. Based only on this information, which of the following is the most reasonable inference?

The symptoms are probably caused by stress.
The patient's symptoms require further medical investigation. (Correct answer)
The patient is likely a smoker.
The patient has a serious illness like cancer or tuberculosis.

Correct answer: The patient's symptoms require further medical investigation.

The combination of symptoms is concerning and non-specific, meaning they could be caused by various conditions. Therefore, the most logical and safe conclusion is that a medical workup is necessary to determine the cause, rather than jumping to a specific diagnosis or dismissing the symptoms.

Question 25: What type of bond holds sodium and chloride together in table salt (NaCl)?

Covalent bond
Hydrogen bond
Van der Waals forces
Ionic bond (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Ionic bond

Sodium chloride is held together by ionic bonds, formed when sodium transfers an electron to chlorine, creating oppositely charged ions that attract each other.

Question 26: Using context clues, determine the meaning of 'aseptic' in the following sentence: 'The nurse maintained aseptic technique throughout the procedure to prevent any microorganisms from entering the surgical site.'

Quick and efficient
Using antiseptic solutions
Relating to anesthesia
Free from contamination by pathogens (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Free from contamination by pathogens

The context clue 'to prevent any microorganisms from entering the surgical site' indicates that 'aseptic' means free from contamination by disease-causing organisms.

Question 27: Why is English language proficiency important for nursing program eligibility?

English proficiency is not actually required for nursing programs.
Patient safety requires clear communication for documenting care and understanding orders. (Correct answer)
International students are not allowed in nursing programs.
English is the only language spoken in hospitals.

Correct answer: Patient safety requires clear communication for documenting care and understanding orders.

English language proficiency is essential because nurses must clearly communicate with patients, document care accurately, understand medication orders, and collaborate with the healthcare team to ensure patient safety.

Question 28: In many nursing entrance exams, what is the typical requirement for marks in the qualifying exam (such as high school)?

At least 50% in all subjects
A GPA of 3.0 or higher
At least 60% in science subjects (Correct answer)
No minimum percentage requirement

Correct answer: At least 60% in science subjects

Many nursing entrance exams set a minimum mark requirement (often around 60%) in science subjects like Biology and Chemistry to ensure that candidates have the necessary academic background to succeed in nursing studies.

Question 29: When evaluating a research article for evidence-based practice, which question is MOST important for critical analysis?

Does the study have a large sample size and appropriate methodology? (Correct answer)
Do the conclusions agree with current practice?
Was the study funded by a well-known institution?
Was the study published in a prestigious journal?

Correct answer: Does the study have a large sample size and appropriate methodology?

The methodological rigor of a study, including sample size, design appropriateness, and statistical validity, is the most important factor in evaluating research quality.

Question 30: An IV bag contains 1000 mL of fluid to be infused over 5 hours. At what rate in mL/hr should the nurse set the infusion pump?

175 mL/hr
250 mL/hr
150 mL/hr
200 mL/hr (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 200 mL/hr

To find the infusion rate in mL per hour, divide the total volume by the total time in hours. 1000 mL divided by 5 hours equals 200 mL/hr.

Question 31: A patient states, 'I'm not getting the flu shot. My cousin got one last year and she still got the flu.' Which statement best identifies the flaw in the patient's reasoning?

The patient is confusing correlation with causation.
The patient is making a generalization based on anecdotal evidence. (Correct answer)
The patient is disrespecting their doctor's medical opinion.
The patient is assuming that all flu shots are the same.

Correct answer: The patient is making a generalization based on anecdotal evidence.

The patient is using a single, personal story (anecdote) to draw a broad conclusion about the effectiveness of the flu vaccine. This is a logical fallacy because a single case does not disprove the overall statistical effectiveness of the vaccine for a large population.

Question 32: The left anterior descending artery primarily supplies blood to which area of the heart?

Posterior wall of the left ventricle
Right ventricle and inferior wall
Right atrium and SA node
Anterior wall of the left ventricle and interventricular septum (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Anterior wall of the left ventricle and interventricular septum

The left anterior descending (LAD) artery supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle and the anterior two-thirds of the interventricular septum, making it the most critical coronary artery.

Question 33: A student has a prior misdemeanor conviction. How does this typically affect nursing program eligibility?

The conviction is automatically sealed upon program admission.
Most programs evaluate the nature and timing of the offense on a case-by-case basis. (Correct answer)
They can only apply to online nursing programs.
They are permanently ineligible for any nursing program.

Correct answer: Most programs evaluate the nature and timing of the offense on a case-by-case basis.

Most nursing programs and state boards of nursing evaluate criminal histories on a case-by-case basis, considering the nature of the offense, how long ago it occurred, evidence of rehabilitation, and whether it poses a risk to patient safety.

Question 34: After receiving their entrance exam score report, a student finds they scored below average in the Reading section. Which specific improvement strategy should they prioritize?

Memorize a dictionary to improve vocabulary
Read more fiction novels for pleasure
Practice reading scientific and health-related passages with timed comprehension questions (Correct answer)
Watch more educational television programs

Correct answer: Practice reading scientific and health-related passages with timed comprehension questions

Practicing with scientific and health-related passages under timed conditions directly mirrors the exam format and builds the specific reading comprehension skills tested, including main idea identification, inference, and vocabulary in context.

Question 35: The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of ___ in one atom of that element.

protons (Correct answer)
neutrons
ions
electrons

Correct answer: protons

The atomic number is the defining characteristic of an element. It is equal to the number of protons found in the nucleus of every atom of that element.

Question 36: What is the basic structural and functional unit of all living organisms?

Molecule
Cell (Correct answer)
Atom
Tissue

Correct answer: Cell

The cell is the smallest unit of life capable of carrying out all basic biological functions independently.

Question 37: Identify the sentence with the correct use of an apostrophe.

The nurses' station is fully stocked. (Correct answer)
The nurse's stations are fully stocked.
The nurses station is fully stocked.
The nurse's station's are fully stocked.

Correct answer: The nurses' station is fully stocked.

When a plural noun ending in 's' shows possession, the apostrophe goes after the 's.' The station belongs to multiple nurses, so 'nurses'' is correct.

Question 38: Read the passage and answer the question that follows. Sleep deprivation has a wide range of negative effects on the human body and mind. Cognitively, a lack of adequate sleep can impair attention, concentration, and memory. Physiologically, it can weaken the immune system, making an individual more susceptible to illness. Chronic sleep loss is also linked to an increased risk of serious health problems, including obesity, heart disease, and diabetes. Therefore, consistently achieving 7-9 hours of quality sleep per night is as essential for health as diet and exercise.

The only effect of sleep deprivation is tiredness.
Insufficient sleep has significant negative health consequences. (Correct answer)
Sleep is more important than diet and exercise.
Everyone requires exactly 8 hours of sleep.

Correct answer: Insufficient sleep has significant negative health consequences.

The passage details the cognitive and physiological problems caused by a lack of sleep and concludes by emphasizing its importance. The central theme is that not getting enough sleep is detrimental to one's overall health.

Question 39: For a nursing entrance exam, which of the following is typically not a requirement?

Citizenship or residency status
Previous work experience in a healthcare setting (Correct answer)
Physical fitness certification
Minimum marks in the qualifying exam

Correct answer: Previous work experience in a healthcare setting

Most nursing entrance exams do not require candidates to have prior work experience in healthcare. The primary focus is on academic qualifications and age eligibility. Work experience may be required for specialized nursing programs but not for general nursing entrance exams.

Question 40: Which document is typically required during the admission process for nursing programs?

Proof of work experience in healthcare
High school transcript or equivalent (Correct answer)
Passport-sized photographs only
Letter of recommendation from a family member

Correct answer: High school transcript or equivalent

A high school transcript or its equivalent is a fundamental document required for admission to almost all higher education programs, including nursing. It provides official proof of a candidate's academic background, courses completed, and grades achieved, demonstrating their foundational education and eligibility for college-level studies. This document verifies that the applicant meets the basic educational prerequisites.

Question 41: A public health campaign poster reads: 'Our city has seen a 15% increase in gym memberships and a 10% decrease in heart disease cases over the past five years. Join a gym and protect your heart!' This campaign's conclusion relies on which of the following assumptions?

Gym memberships are affordable for everyone.
The increase in gym memberships is a direct cause of the reduction in heart disease. (Correct answer)
Heart disease is the leading cause of death in the city.
No other health initiatives were started in the last five years.

Correct answer: The increase in gym memberships is a direct cause of the reduction in heart disease.

The poster implies a causal relationship between the increase in gym memberships and the decrease in heart disease. For this to be plausible, it must assume that the people joining gyms are the same ones experiencing better health outcomes, and that their gym activity is the cause.

Question 42: What is 3/8 + 5/12?

1/3
19/24 (Correct answer)
8/20
15/32

Correct answer: 19/24

Find the LCD (24): 3/8 = 9/24, 5/12 = 10/24. Sum: 9/24 + 10/24 = 19/24.

Question 43: Neither the head nurse nor the nursing assistants ___ available to take the patient's call right now.

are (Correct answer)
is
has been
was

Correct answer: are

When subjects are joined by 'neither/nor', the verb agrees with the subject closest to it. In this sentence, 'nursing assistants' is plural, so the plural verb 'are' is correct.

Question 44: A rectangular wound measures 4.5 cm by 3.2 cm. What is its area?

7.7 cm²
16.2 cm²
15.4 cm²
14.4 cm² (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 14.4 cm²

Area of a rectangle = length × width = 4.5 × 3.2 = 14.4 cm².

Question 45: In the medical term 'arthroplasty', the suffix '-plasty' refers to:

Surgical repair (Correct answer)
Visual examination
Surgical removal
Inflammation

Correct answer: Surgical repair

The suffix '-plasty' means surgical repair or reconstruction. For example, arthroplasty is the surgical reconstruction or replacement of a joint.

Question 46: Which subatomic particle has no electrical charge?

Positron
Electron
Proton
Neutron (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Neutron

Neutrons are electrically neutral particles found in the nucleus alongside protons. They contribute to atomic mass but carry no charge.

Question 47: A nursing student is prioritizing care for four patients. Which approach best demonstrates critical thinking in priority-setting?

Caring for patients in the order they were admitted
Using Maslow's hierarchy and the ABCs to identify the most urgent needs (Correct answer)
Asking a senior nurse to make all prioritization decisions
Treating all patients equally by spending the same time with each

Correct answer: Using Maslow's hierarchy and the ABCs to identify the most urgent needs

Using established prioritization frameworks like Maslow's hierarchy of needs and the ABCs (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) demonstrates systematic critical thinking in determining which patients need immediate attention.

Question 48: A child weighing 22 kg is prescribed a medication at 10 mg/kg/day in 4 divided doses. The medication is available as a suspension of 125 mg/5 mL. How many mL should be given per dose?

11 mL
4.4 mL (Correct answer)
2.2 mL
8.8 mL

Correct answer: 4.4 mL

Daily dose: 22 kg × 10 mg/kg = 220 mg. Per dose: 220 ÷ 4 = 55 mg. Volume: (55/125) × 5 = 2.2 mL. Wait — let me recalculate: (55 ÷ 125) × 5 = 0.44 × 5 = 2.2 mL.

Question 49: Which level of Bloom's Taxonomy does a nursing student demonstrate when they create a new care plan by integrating knowledge from multiple courses?

Synthesis/Create (Correct answer)
Evaluation
Analysis
Application

Correct answer: Synthesis/Create

Creating a new care plan by combining and integrating knowledge from multiple sources represents the synthesis/create level of Bloom's Taxonomy, which is the highest cognitive level involving the generation of new ideas or products.

Question 50: What distinguishes active transport from passive transport across the cell membrane?

Active transport requires energy (ATP); passive transport does not (Correct answer)
Active transport only occurs in prokaryotes; passive transport only in eukaryotes
Passive transport moves molecules against a concentration gradient; active transport does not
Active transport moves only water; passive transport moves only solutes

Correct answer: Active transport requires energy (ATP); passive transport does not

Active transport uses ATP to move substances against their concentration gradient, while passive transport moves substances along their concentration gradient without energy input.

Question 51: A patient reports severe chest pain, but their diagnostic tests are all normal. Using critical thinking, what should the nurse consider?

The patient is likely exaggerating symptoms
Pain is subjective and the patient's report should be taken seriously (Correct answer)
The patient should be discharged immediately
Diagnostic tests are always definitive

Correct answer: Pain is subjective and the patient's report should be taken seriously

Critical thinking requires nurses to recognize that pain is a subjective experience and that diagnostic tests have limitations. The patient's self-report of pain should always be taken seriously and investigated further.

Question 52: What is the atomic number of an element determined by?

Number of electrons
Number of neutrons
Number of protons (Correct answer)
Total mass of the nucleus

Correct answer: Number of protons

The atomic number is determined by the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom, which defines the element's identity.

Question 53: A solution of disinfectant requires 2 parts concentrate to 7 parts water. If you need to make a total of 450 mL of solution, how much concentrate do you need?

50 mL
350 mL
150 mL
100 mL (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 100 mL

The total number of 'parts' in the solution is 2 + 7 = 9 parts. The proportion of concentrate is 2 out of 9 parts. To find the amount of concentrate needed for 450 mL, calculate (2/9) * 450. (450 / 9) = 50, and 50 * 2 = 100 mL.

Question 54: How many grams of dextrose are in 500 mL of a 5% Dextrose in Water (D5W) solution?

10 g
50 g
25 g (Correct answer)
5 g

Correct answer: 25 g

A 5% solution means there are 5 grams of solute for every 100 mL of solution. To find the amount in 500 mL, set up a proportion: (5 g / 100 mL) = (x g / 500 mL). Solving for x gives (5 * 500) / 100 = 25 grams.

Question 55: What is the primary purpose of taking practice tests when preparing for a nursing entrance exam?

To focus solely on the easiest subjects
To memorize exact exam questions
To increase the number of study materials
To familiarize oneself with the exam format and time constraints (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To familiarize oneself with the exam format and time constraints

Practice tests are invaluable tools for exam preparation because they simulate the actual testing experience. By taking practice tests, candidates become familiar with the types of questions asked, the structure of the exam, and the time limits for each section. This familiarity helps reduce anxiety on exam day and allows candidates to develop effective time management strategies, improving their overall performance.

Question 56: Convert 2.75 to a fraction in lowest terms.

11/4
Both A and C (Correct answer)
2 3/4
2 7/10

Correct answer: Both A and C

2.75 = 2 + 0.75 = 2 + 75/100 = 2 + 3/4 = 2 3/4, which equals 11/4 as an improper fraction. Both A and C are correct representations.

Question 57: Which subject is NOT typically included in the syllabus of nursing entrance exams?

History (Correct answer)
Biology
Chemistry
Physics

Correct answer: History

Nursing entrance exams generally focus on subjects related to science (Biology, Chemistry, Physics) and basic English or general knowledge. History is not typically part of the nursing entrance exam syllabus unless specifically stated by the exam authority.

Question 58: What is the primary function of the cytoskeleton?

To provide structural support and enable cell movement (Correct answer)
To digest cellular waste materials
To store and replicate genetic information
To produce energy for cellular activities

Correct answer: To provide structural support and enable cell movement

The cytoskeleton is a network of protein filaments that maintains cell shape, enables movement, and facilitates the transport of organelles within the cell.

Question 59: A study group member suggests using mnemonics to remember nursing content. Which is an example of an effective mnemonic for remembering the order of operations in math?

FAST (Face, Arms, Speech, Time)
PEMDAS (Please Excuse My Dear Aunt Sally) (Correct answer)
RICE (Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation)
ABCDEF

Correct answer: PEMDAS (Please Excuse My Dear Aunt Sally)

PEMDAS (Parentheses, Exponents, Multiplication/Division, Addition/Subtraction) is the standard mnemonic for remembering the mathematical order of operations, often taught as 'Please Excuse My Dear Aunt Sally.'

Question 60: Which sentence contains a semicolon used correctly?

The patient's vitals; are stable and his family has been notified.
The patient's vitals are stable; however, we should continue monitoring. (Correct answer)
The patient's vitals are stable; and his family has been notified.
The patient's vitals are stable; stable enough to discharge.

Correct answer: The patient's vitals are stable; however, we should continue monitoring.

A semicolon correctly joins two independent clauses, especially when followed by a conjunctive adverb like 'however,' which is then followed by a comma.

Question 61: Which critical thinking skill involves recognizing that personal beliefs may influence clinical judgment?

Inference
Analysis
Interpretation
Self-regulation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Self-regulation

Self-regulation is the critical thinking skill that involves examining one's own biases, assumptions, and reasoning processes to ensure objectivity in clinical judgment.

Question 62: In a balanced chemical equation, what must be equal on both sides?

Volume of reactants and products
Number of molecules
Number of atoms of each element (Correct answer)
Temperature of the reaction

Correct answer: Number of atoms of each element

According to the Law of Conservation of Mass, the number of atoms of each element must be equal on both sides of a balanced chemical equation.

Question 63: In a chemical equation, what does a catalyst do?

Speeds up the reaction without being consumed (Correct answer)
Adds energy to the reaction
Increases the products formed
Changes the equilibrium position

Correct answer: Speeds up the reaction without being consumed

A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction by lowering the activation energy without being consumed or permanently altered in the process.

Question 64: The passage on sleep deprivation states that a lack of sleep can directly impair which of the following?

Cognitive function (Correct answer)
Visual acuity
Long-term ambition
Physical strength

Correct answer: Cognitive function

The first sentence of the passage's body explicitly mentions that a lack of sleep 'can impair attention, concentration, and memory,' which are all elements of cognitive function. The other options are not directly stated as being impaired.

Question 65: What is the recommended study timeline for preparing for a nursing entrance exam?

4-8 weeks of structured preparation (Correct answer)
No preparation is needed if you completed prerequisites
At least one full year of study
1-2 days before the exam

Correct answer: 4-8 weeks of structured preparation

Most experts recommend 4-8 weeks of structured, consistent study to adequately prepare for nursing entrance exams, allowing time to review content, practice questions, and address weak areas.

Question 66: The prefix 'hyper-' in medical terminology most commonly means:

Within normal range
Above normal or excessive (Correct answer)
Absence of
Below normal

Correct answer: Above normal or excessive

The prefix 'hyper-' means above normal, excessive, or beyond, as seen in terms like hypertension (high blood pressure) and hyperglycemia (high blood sugar).

Question 67: Solve for x: 3x + 7 = 28

9
5
11.67
7 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 7

Subtract 7 from both sides: 3x = 21. Divide by 3: x = 7.

Question 68: Which of the following is typically NOT required as part of a nursing program admission application?

A personal statement or essay
Board certification in a medical specialty (Correct answer)
Letters of recommendation
Official high school or college transcripts

Correct answer: Board certification in a medical specialty

Board certification in a medical specialty is a credential for practicing professionals, not a prerequisite for entering a nursing program. Admissions typically require transcripts, recommendations, and personal statements.

Question 69: Which of the following is an example of a 'technical standard' that nursing programs require applicants to meet?

Ability to speak three or more languages
Ability to respond to emergency situations with appropriate urgency (Correct answer)
Ability to type 60 words per minute
Ability to memorize the entire pharmacology textbook

Correct answer: Ability to respond to emergency situations with appropriate urgency

Technical standards include behavioral and cognitive requirements like the ability to respond appropriately to emergencies, which is essential for safe patient care.

Question 70: What is one key benefit of creating a study schedule when preparing for a nursing entrance exam?

It allows for last-minute cramming
It eliminates the need for practice tests
It reduces the amount of material to study
It helps allocate specific time slots for different subjects and ensures balanced preparation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It helps allocate specific time slots for different subjects and ensures balanced preparation

A well-structured study schedule is essential for comprehensive exam preparation. It allows candidates to systematically cover all required subjects, dedicating appropriate time to each based on their strengths and weaknesses. This balanced approach prevents neglecting certain topics, ensures consistent progress, and helps manage time effectively, leading to more thorough and less stressful preparation.

Question 71: Select the sentence that correctly uses a dash (em dash).

The patient's—condition which had been—stable suddenly deteriorated.
The patient's condition—which had been stable—suddenly deteriorated. (Correct answer)
The patient's condition which had been stable—suddenly deteriorated.
The patient's condition which—had been stable—suddenly deteriorated.

Correct answer: The patient's condition—which had been stable—suddenly deteriorated.

Em dashes correctly set off a parenthetical element ('which had been stable') that interrupts the main clause, similar to commas but with greater emphasis.

Question 72: A patient is prescribed 2 liters of IV fluid to be administered over 24 hours. After 8 hours, 800 mL has been infused. What percentage of the total fluid has been administered?

20%
40% (Correct answer)
50%
33.3%

Correct answer: 40%

First, ensure the units are consistent. The total fluid is 2 liters, which is 2000 mL. To find the percentage, use the formula (Part / Whole) * 100. So, (800 mL / 2000 mL) * 100 = 0.4 * 100 = 40%.

Question 73: What is considered the natural pacemaker of the heart, responsible for initiating the cardiac cycle?

Bundle of His
Purkinje fibers
Atrioventricular (AV) node
Sinoatrial (SA) node (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Sinoatrial (SA) node

The sinoatrial (SA) node, located in the upper wall of the right atrium, generates electrical impulses that spread through the heart muscle, causing it to contract. This intrinsic property makes it the heart's natural pacemaker.

Question 74: What is the purpose of using a SBAR communication framework in nursing?

To establish nursing diagnoses for care planning
To evaluate the effectiveness of nursing interventions
To provide structured, clear communication during handoffs and urgent situations (Correct answer)
To document patient care in the electronic health record

Correct answer: To provide structured, clear communication during handoffs and urgent situations

SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) provides a standardized framework for clear, concise communication between healthcare providers, particularly during handoffs and when reporting changes in patient condition.

Question 75: Which organelle is responsible for modifying, packaging, and shipping proteins to their final destinations?

Mitochondria
Ribosome
Smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Golgi apparatus (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Golgi apparatus

The Golgi apparatus processes and packages proteins and lipids before directing them to their final destinations inside or outside the cell.

Question 76: A patient who weighs 70 kg is prescribed a medication at a dose of 3 mg/kg. What is the total dose in mg the patient should receive?

210 mg (Correct answer)
23.3 mg
73 mg
140 mg

Correct answer: 210 mg

To calculate a weight-based dose, multiply the patient's weight in kg by the prescribed dose per kg. 70 kg multiplied by 3 mg/kg equals 210 mg.

Question 77: Which of the following correctly matches the medical term with its meaning?

Tachycardia — slow heart rate
Hematuria — blood in the urine (Correct answer)
Cephalgia — stomach pain
Myalgia — joint pain

Correct answer: Hematuria — blood in the urine

'Hemat-' means blood and '-uria' refers to urine. Hematuria is the presence of blood in the urine.

Question 78: Simplify: 4² × 3 - 2(5 + 3)

40
64
16
32 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 32

Following order of operations (PEMDAS): 4² = 16, parentheses: 5+3 = 8, then 16 × 3 = 48, and 2 × 8 = 16. Finally: 48 - 16 = 32.

Question 79: Which of the following resources is most beneficial when preparing for the science sections (Biology, Chemistry, Physics) of a nursing entrance exam?

Social media forums
Popular science magazines
Textbooks and reference books (Correct answer)
Fiction novels

Correct answer: Textbooks and reference books

Textbooks and reference books are specifically designed to provide comprehensive, accurate, and in-depth information on academic subjects like Biology, Chemistry, and Physics. They cover the foundational concepts, theories, and principles that are typically tested in science sections of entrance exams. Relying on these authoritative sources ensures a thorough and reliable understanding of the material.

Question 80: Which cognitive bias occurs when a nurse forms an early impression of a patient and ignores subsequent contradictory information?

Availability bias
Confirmation bias
Anchoring bias (Correct answer)
Recency bias

Correct answer: Anchoring bias

Anchoring bias occurs when a person relies too heavily on the first piece of information encountered (the anchor) and fails to adequately adjust their assessment based on new information.

Question 81: Which of the following is typically required as an educational qualification for nursing entrance exams?

Completion of high school with science subjects (Correct answer)
Completion of a vocational course in healthcare
Completion of a nursing diploma
Bachelor's degree in any field

Correct answer: Completion of high school with science subjects

Most nursing entrance exams require candidates to have completed high school with a focus on science subjects such as Biology, Chemistry, and Physics, as these form the foundation of nursing studies.

Question 82: Which study strategy is most effective for the Science section of nursing entrance exams?

Memorizing every detail from a comprehensive science textbook
Watching science documentaries without taking notes
Only studying topics not covered in prerequisite courses
Focusing on major body systems, basic chemistry concepts, and scientific reasoning skills (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Focusing on major body systems, basic chemistry concepts, and scientific reasoning skills

The most effective strategy is focusing on high-yield topics: major body systems (cardiovascular, respiratory, nervous), basic chemistry (atoms, bonds, pH), and scientific reasoning, as these are the most frequently tested areas.

Question 83: Read the passage: 'The human immune system consists of two main branches: innate immunity and adaptive immunity. Innate immunity provides immediate, nonspecific defense against pathogens through barriers like skin and mucous membranes, as well as inflammatory responses. Adaptive immunity develops over time and creates specific antibodies targeted at particular pathogens, providing long-lasting protection.' What organizational pattern does the author use?

Compare and contrast (Correct answer)
Chronological order
Cause and effect
Problem and solution

Correct answer: Compare and contrast

The passage compares and contrasts two types of immunity, describing how they differ in their timing (immediate vs. develops over time) and approach (nonspecific vs. specific).

Question 84: Which sentence correctly uses a colon?

The patient reported the following symptoms: headache, dizziness, and nausea. (Correct answer)
The patient: reported symptoms of headache, dizziness, and nausea.
The patient reported symptoms: such as: headache, dizziness, and nausea.
The symptoms reported: by the patient were headache, dizziness, and nausea.

Correct answer: The patient reported the following symptoms: headache, dizziness, and nausea.

A colon is correctly used after a complete independent clause to introduce a list, explanation, or elaboration. 'The patient reported the following symptoms' is a complete clause.

Question 85: How are candidates typically selected for admission based on their nursing entrance exam scores?

Merit-based selection, based on exam scores (Correct answer)
First-come, first-served basis
Random lottery
Selection based on interviews only

Correct answer: Merit-based selection, based on exam scores

Nursing entrance exams are standardized tests designed to objectively evaluate a candidate's academic aptitude and readiness for a demanding nursing curriculum. Therefore, admission to nursing programs is typically merit-based, with candidates selected primarily on their performance in these exams. This ensures that the most qualified applicants, who have demonstrated the necessary foundational knowledge and skills, are admitted.

Question 86: The physician ordered a diuretic for the patient. Based on the context, this medication is intended to:

Increase urine output (Correct answer)
Lower blood sugar
Reduce pain
Fight infection

Correct answer: Increase urine output

A diuretic is a substance that promotes diuresis, the increased production of urine. They are commonly used to treat high blood pressure and fluid retention.

Question 87: A doctor prescribes 0.75 g of a drug. The available tablets are 250 mg each. How many tablets should be given?

2 tablets
4 tablets
2.5 tablets
3 tablets (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 3 tablets

First, convert the prescribed dose to the same unit as the available tablets. Since 1 g = 1000 mg, 0.75 g is equal to 750 mg. Then, divide the ordered dose (750 mg) by the dose on hand (250 mg), which equals 3 tablets.

Question 88: The Science section of nursing entrance exams typically includes questions on which of the following?

Astrophysics and quantum mechanics
Human anatomy and physiology, biology, and chemistry (Correct answer)
Computer science and programming
Advanced organic chemistry only

Correct answer: Human anatomy and physiology, biology, and chemistry

The Science section focuses on subjects directly relevant to nursing: human anatomy and physiology, general biology, basic chemistry, and scientific reasoning skills.

Question 89: Read the passage: 'Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure to prevent healthcare-associated infections. Despite extensive research supporting this practice, compliance rates among healthcare workers remain below optimal levels, averaging only 40-60% in most facilities.' What is the main idea?

Most facilities have adequate hand hygiene compliance.
Hand hygiene prevents infections but compliance is low. (Correct answer)
Research on hand hygiene is extensive.
Healthcare workers wash their hands frequently.

Correct answer: Hand hygiene prevents infections but compliance is low.

The passage presents two key points: hand hygiene is the most effective infection prevention measure, and compliance rates remain below optimal levels. These together form the main idea.

Question 90: A patient with hyperglycemia has an abnormally high level of what substance in their blood?

White blood cells
Potassium
Sodium
Glucose (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Glucose

The prefix 'hyper-' means high or excessive. The root 'glyc-' refers to glucose or sugar. Therefore, hyperglycemia means high blood sugar.

Question 91: Which standardized entrance exam is most commonly used for nursing program admissions?

SAT
GRE
MCAT
TEAS (Test of Essential Academic Skills) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: TEAS (Test of Essential Academic Skills)

The TEAS (Test of Essential Academic Skills) is the most widely used standardized entrance exam specifically designed for nursing and allied health program admissions.

Question 92: How many tablets should be administered if the order reads 'Give 0.5 mg PO' and the available tablets are scored and contain 0.25 mg each?

1 tablet
2 tablets (Correct answer)
0.5 tablet
1.5 tablets

Correct answer: 2 tablets

Number of tablets = Desired dose / Available dose = 0.5 mg / 0.25 mg = 2 tablets.

Question 93: What is the best approach to studying anatomy and physiology for the Science section?

Memorize every structure in the body using rote repetition
Focus only on the skeletal system since it has the most parts
Read an anatomy atlas without taking notes
Study each body system by understanding how it functions and relates to other systems (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Study each body system by understanding how it functions and relates to other systems

Understanding body systems functionally and their interrelationships is more effective than rote memorization because it creates a framework for answering application-level questions on the exam.

Question 94: In some nursing programs, what might be required as part of the selection process beyond exam scores?

A written essay on healthcare topics
A group discussion
A personal interview
A medical fitness certificate (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A medical fitness certificate

Nursing is a physically and mentally demanding profession that requires individuals to be in good health to perform their duties effectively and safely. Many nursing programs require a medical fitness certificate to ensure that prospective students are physically capable of undertaking clinical rotations, handling patients, and meeting the rigorous demands of the curriculum. This also helps protect both the student and future patients.

Question 95: A student applies to a nursing program that requires a minimum GPA of 2.75 in prerequisite courses. Their overall GPA is 3.2, but their prerequisite GPA is 2.6. What is the most likely outcome?

They will be admitted because their overall GPA exceeds the minimum.
Their application will not meet the prerequisite GPA requirement. (Correct answer)
The program will average the two GPAs for admission.
They will be automatically placed on a waiting list.

Correct answer: Their application will not meet the prerequisite GPA requirement.

When a program specifies a minimum GPA for prerequisite courses specifically, the prerequisite GPA (2.6) must meet that threshold (2.75), regardless of overall GPA.

Question 96: What is the primary function of the coronary sinus?

Regulate heart rate
Produce cardiac enzymes
Supply oxygenated blood to the heart
Collect deoxygenated blood from heart muscle (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Collect deoxygenated blood from heart muscle

The coronary sinus is a large vein that collects deoxygenated blood from the cardiac veins and empties it into the right atrium.

Question 97: Read the passage: 'Patient education is a fundamental nursing responsibility that significantly impacts health outcomes. Studies consistently show that patients who understand their conditions, medications, and self-care regimens have lower readmission rates and better adherence to treatment plans. Effective patient education requires assessing the patient's learning style, health literacy level, and cultural background.' The word 'regimens' in this context most likely means:

Restrictions on daily activities
Hospital policies and procedures
Prescribed courses of treatment or behavior (Correct answer)
Medical terminology and vocabulary

Correct answer: Prescribed courses of treatment or behavior

In this context, 'self-care regimens' refers to prescribed courses of treatment and health behaviors that patients follow at home, such as medication schedules, diet plans, and exercise routines.

Question 98: The list of medications, which was updated this morning, ___ on the patient's bedside table.

have been
were
is (Correct answer)
are

Correct answer: is

The subject of the sentence is 'list' (singular), not 'medications'. The phrase 'which was updated this morning' is an intervening clause. The singular subject 'list' requires the singular verb 'is'.

Question 99: Which of the following techniques is helpful in managing stress during the preparation for a nursing entrance exam?

Focusing on one subject for the entire study session
Ignoring breaks and studying nonstop
Engaging in regular physical exercise and relaxation techniques (Correct answer)
Avoiding any social interaction

Correct answer: Engaging in regular physical exercise and relaxation techniques

Preparing for a major exam can be highly stressful, and managing this stress is crucial for optimal performance. Regular physical exercise helps reduce stress hormones and improve mood, while relaxation techniques like deep breathing or meditation can calm the mind. These practices promote mental well-being, improve focus, and prevent burnout, allowing for more effective and sustained study.

Question 100: A patient is scheduled for an EGD (esophagogastroduodenoscopy). This procedure involves examining which parts of the body?

Brain and spinal cord
Heart and lungs
Esophagus, stomach, and duodenum (Correct answer)
Colon and rectum

Correct answer: Esophagus, stomach, and duodenum

Breaking down the term: 'esophago-' refers to the esophagus, 'gastro-' refers to the stomach, and 'duodeno-' refers to the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine). The suffix '-scopy' means to visually examine.

Question 101: What role does practice testing play in nursing entrance exam preparation?

It identifies knowledge gaps, builds test-taking stamina, and improves retrieval strength. (Correct answer)
It only adds stress without improving performance.
It should only be done once, at the beginning of preparation.
It is only useful for students who have never taken a standardized test.

Correct answer: It identifies knowledge gaps, builds test-taking stamina, and improves retrieval strength.

Practice testing serves multiple purposes: it reveals areas needing more study, builds familiarity with time constraints and question formats, strengthens memory retrieval, and reduces test anxiety through repeated exposure.

Question 102: Which medical term means 'inflammation of the liver'?

Hepatoma
Hepatitis (Correct answer)
Hepatomegaly
Hepatectomy

Correct answer: Hepatitis

Hepatitis combines 'hepat-' (liver) with '-itis' (inflammation). The suffix '-itis' always indicates inflammation.

Question 103: What is the difference between the TEAS and HESI A2 nursing entrance exams?

The HESI A2 is only for graduate nursing programs.
The TEAS is a clinical skills exam while the HESI is academic.
They test completely different subjects.
The TEAS is published by ATI and the HESI A2 by Elsevier, but both assess similar academic readiness. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The TEAS is published by ATI and the HESI A2 by Elsevier, but both assess similar academic readiness.

Both exams assess academic readiness for nursing programs with similar content areas, but they are published by different companies (ATI for TEAS, Elsevier for HESI A2) and programs typically accept one or the other.

Question 104: What is the primary role of the smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER)?

ATP production via respiration
Lipid synthesis and detoxification (Correct answer)
DNA replication and repair
Protein synthesis and folding

Correct answer: Lipid synthesis and detoxification

The smooth endoplasmic reticulum synthesizes lipids and steroids and is involved in detoxifying harmful substances, especially in liver cells.

Question 105: What is an isotope?

An atom with a different number of protons
A molecule with different bonding patterns
An atom with a different number of electrons
An atom with a different number of neutrons (Correct answer)

Correct answer: An atom with a different number of neutrons

Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons, resulting in different atomic masses.

Question 106: What is the mean of the following patient temperatures: 98.6, 99.2, 100.4, 98.8, 101.0?

100.0°F
99.8°F
99.4°F
99.6°F (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 99.6°F

Mean = sum of all values / number of values = (98.6 + 99.2 + 100.4 + 98.8 + 101.0) / 5 = 498.0 / 5 = 99.6°F.

Question 107: Which type of cell lacks a membrane-bound nucleus?

Plant cell
Animal cell
Prokaryotic cell (Correct answer)
Eukaryotic cell

Correct answer: Prokaryotic cell

Prokaryotic cells, such as bacteria, lack a membrane-bound nucleus and other membrane-enclosed organelles.

Question 108: A medication is supplied as 120 mg in 4 mL. A patient requires a dose of 150 mg. How many mL should the nurse administer?

5 mL (Correct answer)
4.5 mL
6 mL
5.5 mL

Correct answer: 5 mL

This is a ratio and proportion problem. Set up the equation (120 mg / 4 mL) = (150 mg / x mL). Cross-multiply to get 120x = 150 * 4, which simplifies to 120x = 600. Solve for x by dividing 600 by 120, which equals 5 mL.

Question 109: A nurse needs to prepare a 1:4 dilution of a stock solution. If the final volume needed is 200 mL, how much stock solution is required?

40 mL
50 mL (Correct answer)
80 mL
25 mL

Correct answer: 50 mL

A 1:4 dilution means 1 part stock to a total of 4 parts. Stock volume = Total volume / Dilution factor = 200 / 4 = 50 mL of stock solution.

Question 110: In the sentence 'The patient's prognosis improved after treatment,' the word 'prognosis' means:

The cause of the disease
The symptoms of the disease
A prediction of the likely course of a disease (Correct answer)
A medical test or procedure

Correct answer: A prediction of the likely course of a disease

'Prognosis' comes from Greek 'prognosis' meaning foreknowledge, and in medicine refers to the predicted outcome or course of a disease or condition.

Question 111: What is the primary function of the cell membrane?

To regulate what enters and exits the cell (Correct answer)
To produce energy for the cell
To synthesize proteins
To store genetic information

Correct answer: To regulate what enters and exits the cell

The cell membrane is a selectively permeable barrier that controls the movement of substances into and out of the cell.

Question 112: Which section is commonly included in the general knowledge portion of nursing entrance exams?

Current affairs (Correct answer)
Political history
World literature
Psychological theories

Correct answer: Current affairs

Many nursing entrance exams include a general knowledge section to assess a candidate's awareness of the world around them, including societal issues and recent developments. Current affairs are commonly tested because they reflect a candidate's engagement with contemporary events, which can be relevant to understanding public health trends, policy changes, and the broader healthcare landscape. This demonstrates a well-rounded individual with an interest beyond purely academic subjects.

Question 113: A patient's fluid intake was 1,200 mL, and their fluid output was 900 mL. What is the ratio of intake to output in its simplest form?

4:3 (Correct answer)
3:4
1.33:1
12:9

Correct answer: 4:3

The initial ratio is 1200:900. To simplify a ratio, find the greatest common divisor (GCD) for both numbers. Both 1200 and 900 can be divided by 300. 1200 / 300 = 4, and 900 / 300 = 3. Therefore, the simplest form of the ratio is 4:3.

Question 114: How many electrons can the second energy level (shell) of an atom hold?

8 (Correct answer)
6
18
2

Correct answer: 8

The second electron shell can hold a maximum of 8 electrons, following the formula 2n² where n is the shell number (2 x 2² = 8).

Question 115: The two ___ charts were accidentally switched at the front desk.

patient
patients
patient's
patients' (Correct answer)

Correct answer: patients'

The word 'patients' needs to be plural to indicate more than one patient, and possessive to show ownership of the charts. The correct form for a plural possessive noun ending in 's' is to add an apostrophe after the 's'.

Question 116: How many milliliters of a drug should be drawn up if the order is for 75 mg and the vial contains 100 mg/2 mL?

1.5 mL (Correct answer)
1.0 mL
0.75 mL
2.0 mL

Correct answer: 1.5 mL

Using the formula: (Desired/Available) × Volume = (75/100) × 2 = 0.75 × 2 = 1.5 mL.

Question 117: What is osmosis?

Movement of large particles through membrane pores
Active transport of molecules requiring ATP
Movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from high to low water concentration (Correct answer)
Movement of solutes from low to high concentration

Correct answer: Movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from high to low water concentration

Osmosis is the passive movement of water molecules across a selectively permeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to low water concentration.

Question 118: A nurse notices a patient's blood pressure has dropped significantly after starting a new medication. What is the most appropriate first critical thinking step?

Document the finding and continue monitoring
Discontinue the medication immediately
Call the physician right away
Assess the patient's overall condition and vital signs (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Assess the patient's overall condition and vital signs

The first step in critical thinking is thorough assessment. Before taking action, the nurse must gather complete data by evaluating the patient's overall condition, including all vital signs and symptoms.

Question 119: The reaction 2H₂O → 2H₂ + O₂ is an example of which type of reaction?

Single displacement
Decomposition (Correct answer)
Synthesis
Combustion

Correct answer: Decomposition

A decomposition reaction is one in which a single compound breaks down into two or more simpler substances. Here, water (H₂O) is breaking down into hydrogen (H₂) and oxygen (O₂).

Question 120: Choose the sentence that correctly uses 'who' vs. 'whom.'

The doctor who the nurse consulted with confirmed the diagnosis.
The doctor who the nurse consulted confirmed the diagnosis.
The doctor whom consulted with the nurse confirmed the diagnosis.
The doctor whom the nurse consulted confirmed the diagnosis. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The doctor whom the nurse consulted confirmed the diagnosis.

'Whom' is correct because 'the doctor' is the object of the verb 'consulted' — the nurse consulted the doctor. 'Who' is used for subjects, 'whom' for objects.

Question 121: Which of the following best demonstrates the critical thinking disposition of intellectual courage?

Agreeing with the majority opinion during a care conference
Challenging a physician's order that appears to contradict evidence-based practice (Correct answer)
Accepting the opinion of the most experienced nurse without question
Avoiding conflict by following established routines

Correct answer: Challenging a physician's order that appears to contradict evidence-based practice

Intellectual courage means being willing to challenge ideas, even from authority figures, when evidence suggests a different course of action, particularly when patient safety may be at risk.

Question 122: A nurse works 36 hours per week. If she receives a 15% pay increase on her hourly rate of $28, what is her new weekly pay?

$1,058.40
$1,008.00
$1,188.00
$1,159.20 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: $1,159.20

New hourly rate: $28 × 1.15 = $32.20. New weekly pay: $32.20 × 36 = $1,159.20.

Question 123: Read the passage: 'Cultural competence in nursing involves understanding and respecting the diverse health beliefs, practices, and needs of patients from various cultural backgrounds. A culturally competent nurse avoids making assumptions based on stereotypes and instead asks patients about their individual preferences and beliefs. This approach improves patient satisfaction, treatment adherence, and health outcomes across diverse populations.' The word 'competence' as used in this passage most closely means:

Ability to effectively function and respond (Correct answer)
Minimum standard required for licensure
Authority to make medical decisions
Legal permission to practice nursing

Correct answer: Ability to effectively function and respond

In this context, 'competence' refers to the ability to effectively understand, communicate with, and provide care to patients from diverse cultures, going beyond mere knowledge to active capability.

Question 124: During which phase of the cardiac cycle do the ventricles fill with blood?

Isovolumetric contraction
Systole
Ejection phase
Diastole (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Diastole

During diastole, the ventricles relax and fill with blood from the atria, preparing for the next contraction cycle.

Question 125: Which sentence demonstrates correct use of the subjunctive mood?

The doctor recommended that the patient takes the medication with food.
The doctor recommended that the patient is taking the medication with food.
The doctor recommended that the patient took the medication with food.
The doctor recommended that the patient take the medication with food. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The doctor recommended that the patient take the medication with food.

The subjunctive mood uses the base form of the verb (take, not takes or took) after verbs of recommendation, suggestion, or demand in a 'that' clause.

Question 126: A patient receives heparin at 1,200 units/hour. The IV bag contains 25,000 units in 500 mL. What is the infusion rate in mL/hour?

20 mL/hr
48 mL/hr
24 mL/hr (Correct answer)
12 mL/hr

Correct answer: 24 mL/hr

First find the concentration: 25,000 units / 500 mL = 50 units/mL. Then: 1,200 units/hr ÷ 50 units/mL = 24 mL/hr.

Question 127: An IV infusion of 1,000 mL of normal saline is ordered to run over 8 hours. The drip factor is 15 gtt/mL. What is the correct flow rate in gtt/min?

25 gtt/min
31 gtt/min (Correct answer)
42 gtt/min
21 gtt/min

Correct answer: 31 gtt/min

Flow rate = (Volume × Drop factor) / (Time in minutes) = (1000 × 15) / (8 × 60) = 15000 / 480 = 31.25, rounded to 31 gtt/min.

Question 128: What is the minimum age requirement for most nursing entrance exams?

18 years
17 years (Correct answer)
16 years
19 years

Correct answer: 17 years

Most nursing entrance exams require candidates to be at least 17 years old by a certain date (e.g., the exam year). This ensures that candidates are physically and mentally mature enough to handle the demands of nursing education and practice.

Question 129: The term 'pathogen' is best defined as:

A chemical messenger in the body
A type of white blood cell
A disease-causing agent (Correct answer)
A beneficial microorganism

Correct answer: A disease-causing agent

'Patho-' means disease and '-gen' means producing or causing. A pathogen is any organism or substance capable of causing disease.

Question 130: What is the most effective way to begin preparing for a nursing entrance exam?

Take a full-length diagnostic practice test to identify strengths and weaknesses (Correct answer)
Read the entire nursing program curriculum guide
Start by memorizing medical terminology flashcards
Begin studying the most difficult topics first

Correct answer: Take a full-length diagnostic practice test to identify strengths and weaknesses

Starting with a diagnostic practice test provides a baseline score and reveals which content areas need the most attention, allowing you to create an efficient, targeted study plan.

Question 131: Identify the sentence with a misplaced modifier.

The nurse reviewed the chart while walking to the nurses' station.
Walking to the nurses' station, the chart was reviewed by the nurse. (Correct answer)
After walking to the station, the nurse reviewed the chart.
The nurse walked to the station and reviewed the chart.

Correct answer: Walking to the nurses' station, the chart was reviewed by the nurse.

In option A, the participial phrase 'Walking to the nurses' station' incorrectly modifies 'the chart,' implying the chart was walking. The modifier should be placed next to the noun it describes.

Question 132: Which section of the TEAS exam has the most questions?

Science
Reading (Correct answer)
English and Language Usage
Mathematics

Correct answer: Reading

The Reading and Science sections are tied with the most questions at 53 each, but Reading has the most questions per time allocated, making it the section requiring the quickest pace.

Question 133: Which sentence correctly handles subject-verb agreement with an indefinite pronoun?

Everyone of the patients has been discharged. (Correct answer)
Everyone of the patients have been discharged.
Everyone of the patients were discharged.
Everyone of the patients are being discharged.

Correct answer: Everyone of the patients has been discharged.

'Everyone' is a singular indefinite pronoun and always takes a singular verb, regardless of the prepositional phrase that follows it.

Question 134: Which sentence demonstrates correct subject-verb agreement?

The team of nurses are preparing for the shift change.
The team of nurses have been preparing for the shift change.
The team of nurses were preparing for the shift change.
The team of nurses is preparing for the shift change. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The team of nurses is preparing for the shift change.

The subject 'team' is a collective noun treated as singular when acting as a unit, so it takes the singular verb 'is.'

Question 135: Which of the following statements is NOT supported by the passage on sleep deprivation?

Chronic sleep deprivation is the direct cause of heart disease. (Correct answer)
Getting enough sleep is a vital part of a healthy lifestyle.
Memory can be negatively affected by a lack of sleep.
Sleep loss can make a person more likely to get sick.

Correct answer: Chronic sleep deprivation is the direct cause of heart disease.

The passage states that chronic sleep loss is linked to an *increased risk* of serious health problems, not that it is the *direct cause* of them. It also mentions a range of 7-9 hours, not a specific number, and it equates sleep's importance to diet and exercise, not placing it above them.

Question 136: Which immunization is most commonly required before starting clinical rotations in a nursing program?

Yellow fever vaccine
Smallpox vaccine
Rabies vaccine
Hepatitis B vaccine series (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hepatitis B vaccine series

The Hepatitis B vaccine series is universally required for nursing students because of the risk of bloodborne pathogen exposure during clinical activities involving needle sticks and contact with body fluids.

Question 137: What is a 'waitlist' in the context of nursing program admissions?

A ranked list of qualified applicants who may be admitted if seats become available (Correct answer)
A list of courses the student must complete before starting
A list of students assigned to clinical rotation sites
A list of students who have been rejected permanently

Correct answer: A ranked list of qualified applicants who may be admitted if seats become available

A waitlist is a ranked list of qualified applicants who met admission criteria but were not initially offered a seat due to limited capacity. They may be admitted if accepted students decline their offers.

Question 138: A nursing program admits students twice per year (fall and spring). The fall cohort has 80 seats and receives 400 applications. What is the acceptance rate?

15%
25%
10%
20% (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 20%

Acceptance rate = (Number admitted / Number of applications) × 100 = (80/400) × 100 = 20%.

Question 139: Which layer of the heart wall is responsible for the pumping action?

Pericardium
Epicardium
Myocardium (Correct answer)
Endocardium

Correct answer: Myocardium

The myocardium is the thick muscular middle layer of the heart wall responsible for contraction and pumping blood throughout the body.

Question 140: What is the typical duration of a nursing entrance exam?

2-3 hours (Correct answer)
1 hour
30 minutes
5 hours

Correct answer: 2-3 hours

Nursing entrance exams are designed to assess a broad range of skills and knowledge, including academic aptitude, critical thinking, and sometimes personality traits. A duration of 2-3 hours allows sufficient time for candidates to complete multiple sections, such as math, reading, writing, and science, without excessive fatigue. This timeframe ensures a comprehensive evaluation of a candidate's readiness for a rigorous nursing program.

Question 141: Which statement accurately distinguishes arteries from veins?

Arteries carry blood away from the heart. (Correct answer)
Veins are the site of gas exchange with tissues.
Arteries always carry deoxygenated blood.
Veins have thicker, more muscular walls than arteries.

Correct answer: Arteries carry blood away from the heart.

Arteries are blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart, typically under high pressure, which is why they have thick, muscular walls. Veins carry blood toward the heart, generally under lower pressure.

Question 142: Select the sentence with correct comma usage.

The patient who, is in room 204, needs medication.
The patient who is in room 204 needs medication. (Correct answer)
The patient who is, in room 204, needs medication.
The patient, who is in room 204, needs medication.

Correct answer: The patient who is in room 204 needs medication.

When the relative clause 'who is in room 204' is essential to identifying which patient is being discussed (restrictive clause), no commas are needed.

Question 143: What is 15% of 240?

36 (Correct answer)
42
24
30

Correct answer: 36

15% of 240 = 0.15 × 240 = 36.

Question 144: Which organelle contains the cell's DNA and serves as the control center of cellular activities?

Mitochondria
Nucleus (Correct answer)
Ribosome
Cytoplasm

Correct answer: Nucleus

The nucleus houses the cell's genetic material (DNA) and directs cellular functions including protein synthesis.

Question 145: Which sentence is punctuated correctly?

The patient's fever was high; his breathing was shallow. (Correct answer)
The patient's fever was high, his breathing was shallow.
The patient's fever was high: his breathing was shallow.
The patients fever was high his breathing was shallow.

Correct answer: The patient's fever was high; his breathing was shallow.

A semicolon is used to connect two closely related independent clauses. A comma alone is not strong enough, creating a comma splice.

Question 146: What does the medical term 'dyspnea' mean?

Difficulty speaking
Difficulty breathing (Correct answer)
Difficulty urinating
Difficulty swallowing

Correct answer: Difficulty breathing

'Dys-' means difficult or painful, and '-pnea' refers to breathing. Dyspnea is the medical term for difficulty breathing or shortness of breath.

Question 147: The protein found in red blood cells that is responsible for transporting oxygen is called:

Hemoglobin (Correct answer)
Myoglobin
Albumin
Fibrinogen

Correct answer: Hemoglobin

Hemoglobin is a complex protein within red blood cells that contains iron and binds to oxygen molecules in the lungs. It then transports this oxygen to tissues and organs throughout the body.

Question 148: What is the primary purpose of prerequisite courses in nursing program admissions?

To provide elective credits toward graduation
To ensure students have foundational knowledge needed for nursing coursework (Correct answer)
To increase the cost of the nursing program
To eliminate as many applicants as possible

Correct answer: To ensure students have foundational knowledge needed for nursing coursework

Prerequisite courses ensure that students entering nursing programs have the foundational science and math knowledge necessary to succeed in advanced nursing coursework.

Question 149: A physician orders dopamine at 5 mcg/kg/min for a 70 kg patient. The solution contains 400 mg of dopamine in 250 mL of D5W. What is the infusion rate in mL/hr?

6.6 mL/hr
9.2 mL/hr
17.5 mL/hr
13.1 mL/hr (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 13.1 mL/hr

Dose: 5 mcg/kg/min × 70 kg = 350 mcg/min. Convert to mg: 350/1000 = 0.35 mg/min. Concentration: 400 mg/250 mL = 1.6 mg/mL. Rate: 0.35/1.6 = 0.21875 mL/min × 60 = 13.1 mL/hr.

Question 150: The term 'bradycardia' refers to:

Absent heart beat
Rapid heart rate
Slow heart rate (Correct answer)
Irregular heart rate

Correct answer: Slow heart rate

'Brady-' means slow and 'cardia' refers to the heart. Bradycardia is a heart rate below 60 beats per minute in adults.

Question 151: Read the passage: 'The placebo effect demonstrates the powerful connection between mind and body in healing. In clinical trials, patients who receive inert sugar pills sometimes report significant improvement in their symptoms, even though no active medication was administered. Researchers believe that the patient's expectation of improvement, combined with the therapeutic relationship with the healthcare provider, activates genuine physiological responses in the brain.' What conclusion can be drawn from this passage?

Sugar pills have hidden medicinal properties.
Clinical trials are unreliable because of the placebo effect.
The mind can influence physical health outcomes. (Correct answer)
Placebos should replace conventional medications.

Correct answer: The mind can influence physical health outcomes.

The passage describes how expectations and the therapeutic relationship can activate physiological responses, supporting the conclusion that mental processes can influence physical health outcomes.

Question 152: A patient diagnosed with 'hepatitis' is experiencing inflammation of which organ?

Kidney
Heart
Stomach
Liver (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Liver

The root word 'hepat-' refers to the liver. The suffix '-itis' means inflammation. Therefore, hepatitis is inflammation of the liver.

Question 153: Why do nursing programs typically have age requirements for applicants?

Students must be legally old enough to participate in clinical rotations in healthcare settings. (Correct answer)
Age requirements exist to limit the number of applicants.
Older students cannot learn nursing skills effectively.
Nursing programs only accept traditional-aged college students.

Correct answer: Students must be legally old enough to participate in clinical rotations in healthcare settings.

Nursing programs typically require applicants to be at least 18 years old because students must be legal adults to participate in clinical rotations, handle patient information, and function in professional healthcare settings.

Question 154: The suffix '-ectomy' indicates:

Surgical removal (Correct answer)
Creating an opening
Surgical repair
Viewing or examining

Correct answer: Surgical removal

The suffix '-ectomy' means surgical removal or excision, as in appendectomy (removal of the appendix) or cholecystectomy (removal of the gallbladder).

Question 155: Which of the following solutions has the highest concentration of hydrogen ions?

pH 5
pH 2 (Correct answer)
pH 10
pH 7

Correct answer: pH 2

A solution with pH 2 has the highest hydrogen ion concentration because pH is the negative logarithm of hydrogen ion concentration, so lower pH means more H⁺ ions.

Question 156: Convert 0.25 grams to milligrams.

2,500 mg
250 mg (Correct answer)
2.5 mg
25 mg

Correct answer: 250 mg

To convert grams to milligrams, multiply by 1,000: 0.25 g × 1,000 = 250 mg.

Question 157: A nursing unit has 80 staff members. If 15% of the staff are on vacation, how many staff members are working?

70
65
12
68 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 68

First, calculate the number of staff on vacation: 80 * 0.15 = 12. Then, subtract the number of staff on vacation from the total staff to find who is working: 80 - 12 = 68. Alternatively, if 15% are on vacation, 85% are working. 80 * 0.85 = 68.

Question 158: The order is for 60 mg of a liquid medication. The pharmacy supplies the medication in a concentration of 80 mg/2 mL. How many mL should be administered?

1.5 mL (Correct answer)
2.0 mL
2.67 mL
1.25 mL

Correct answer: 1.5 mL

Use the formula: (Dose Ordered / Dose on Hand) x Quantity. This is (60 mg / 80 mg) x 2 mL. This simplifies to 0.75 x 2 mL, which equals 1.5 mL.

Question 159: Which process do eukaryotic somatic cells use to divide and produce two genetically identical daughter cells?

Binary fission
Mitosis (Correct answer)
Meiosis
Fertilization

Correct answer: Mitosis

Mitosis is the process of eukaryotic cell division that produces two genetically identical daughter cells, each with the same chromosome number as the parent cell.

Question 160: A nurse manager argues, 'We should switch to 12-hour shifts because a study at City General Hospital showed it improved staff morale and reduced overtime costs.' Which of the following statements, if true, would most weaken the manager's argument?

City General Hospital has a much lower nurse-to-patient ratio than our hospital. (Correct answer)
City General Hospital is in the same city as our hospital.
Our hospital's nurses have also reported low morale.
City General Hospital is a private hospital, while ours is a public one.

Correct answer: City General Hospital has a much lower nurse-to-patient ratio than our hospital.

The manager's argument relies on the assumption that what worked at City General will work at their hospital. If City General has a significantly different and more favorable nurse-to-patient ratio, it introduces a critical variable that could account for the positive results, making the comparison invalid and weakening the argument.

Question 161: Which of the following is the most effective strategy for preparing for a nursing entrance exam?

Cramming the day before the exam
Relying only on online study materials
Studying in short, focused sessions over several months (Correct answer)
Focusing solely on practice exams

Correct answer: Studying in short, focused sessions over several months

Effective preparation for a comprehensive exam like a nursing entrance exam requires consistent effort and spaced repetition. Studying in short, focused sessions over several months allows for better retention of information, reduces stress, and prevents burnout compared to cramming. This approach also provides ample time to cover all necessary subjects thoroughly and practice different question types.

Question 162: What is the difference between an ADN (Associate Degree in Nursing) and BSN (Bachelor of Science in Nursing) program in terms of eligibility and outcomes?

ADN graduates cannot take the NCLEX-RN exam.
There is no difference between the two program types.
ADN programs require more prerequisites than BSN programs.
BSN programs typically take longer but provide more career advancement opportunities. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: BSN programs typically take longer but provide more career advancement opportunities.

BSN programs typically require 4 years (vs. 2-3 for ADN) and provide broader education including leadership, research, and community health, offering more career advancement opportunities.

Question 163: What is the Frank-Starling mechanism in cardiac physiology?

Increased heart rate in response to exercise
Decreased cardiac output during sleep
Vasoconstriction in response to cold
Greater stretch of cardiac fibers leads to stronger contraction (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Greater stretch of cardiac fibers leads to stronger contraction

The Frank-Starling mechanism states that the heart pumps more forcefully when the ventricles are filled with more blood, as increased stretching of cardiac muscle fibers produces stronger contractions.

Question 164: Which of the following prerequisite courses is most commonly required for nursing program admission?

Art History
Calculus
Philosophy
Anatomy and Physiology (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Anatomy and Physiology

Anatomy and Physiology is the most universally required prerequisite for nursing programs because understanding body structure and function is fundamental to all nursing practice.

Question 165: In the sentence 'The physician noted bilateral edema in the patient's lower extremities,' the word 'bilateral' means:

Affecting both sides (Correct answer)
Occurring suddenly
Occurring intermittently
Affecting one side only

Correct answer: Affecting both sides

'Bi-' means two and 'lateral' means side, so 'bilateral' means affecting or occurring on both sides of the body.

Question 166: Read the passage: 'Burnout among nurses has reached epidemic proportions, with studies indicating that over 60% of nurses report experiencing symptoms of burnout. Contributing factors include long shifts, emotional exhaustion from patient care, staffing shortages, and administrative burdens. Organizations that implement support programs, manageable workloads, and mental health resources see significantly lower turnover rates.' Which sentence from the passage provides a solution to the problem discussed?

Over 60% of nurses report experiencing symptoms of burnout.
Burnout among nurses has reached epidemic proportions.
Contributing factors include long shifts, emotional exhaustion, staffing shortages, and administrative burdens.
Organizations that implement support programs see significantly lower turnover rates. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Organizations that implement support programs see significantly lower turnover rates.

The final sentence describes what organizations can do to address the burnout problem, making it the solution-oriented statement in the passage.

Question 167: Read the passage: 'Adequate sleep is essential for cognitive function, emotional regulation, and physical health. Research has shown that sleep deprivation impairs judgment, slows reaction time, and weakens the immune system. For nursing students, who must process complex information and make critical decisions, maintaining a consistent sleep schedule of 7-9 hours per night is particularly important.' Which detail directly supports the claim that sleep is important for nursing students specifically?

A consistent sleep schedule of 7-9 hours is recommended.
Nursing students must process complex information and make critical decisions. (Correct answer)
Adequate sleep is essential for cognitive function.
Sleep deprivation weakens the immune system.

Correct answer: Nursing students must process complex information and make critical decisions.

The detail that nursing students must process complex information and make critical decisions directly connects the general importance of sleep to the specific needs of nursing students.

Question 168: A nursing program uses a point-based selection system. Which applicant would most likely receive the highest priority?

An applicant with a 3.8 GPA, CNA certification, and strong entrance exam scores (Correct answer)
An applicant with a 2.5 GPA and no healthcare experience
An applicant who lives closest to the school
An applicant who submitted their application first

Correct answer: An applicant with a 3.8 GPA, CNA certification, and strong entrance exam scores

Point-based systems typically award points for GPA, entrance exam scores, healthcare experience, and relevant certifications, making the applicant with a 3.8 GPA, CNA certification, and strong scores the strongest candidate.

Question 169: Which type of chemical bond involves the sharing of electron pairs between atoms?

Metallic bond
Covalent bond (Correct answer)
Ionic bond
Hydrogen bond

Correct answer: Covalent bond

Covalent bonds form when two atoms share one or more pairs of electrons to achieve stable electron configurations.

Question 170: Read the passage: 'Proper body mechanics are essential for nurses who frequently lift, transfer, and reposition patients. Using the large muscle groups of the legs rather than the smaller muscles of the back significantly reduces the risk of injury. Maintaining a wide base of support and keeping the center of gravity low further enhances stability during patient handling.' What is the author's primary purpose?

To inform readers about proper body mechanics techniques (Correct answer)
To persuade nurses to exercise more frequently
To entertain readers with stories about nursing injuries
To argue against current patient handling policies

Correct answer: To inform readers about proper body mechanics techniques

The passage provides factual information about body mechanics principles and techniques, making its primary purpose informational or instructional.

Question 171: According to the passage, what is a primary reason for the spread of HAIs?

The ineffectiveness of soap and water.
Transmission of germs via healthcare workers' hands. (Correct answer)
A lack of available alcohol-based sanitizers.
The complexity of hygiene protocols.

Correct answer: Transmission of germs via healthcare workers' hands.

The passage explicitly states, 'Pathogens are frequently transmitted from patient to patient on the hands of healthcare workers.' This identifies the hands of staff as a key vector for spreading infections.

Question 172: What should a student do if they do not meet the minimum score on their first nursing entrance exam attempt?

Wait the required period, identify weak areas, study strategically, and retake the exam. (Correct answer)
Give up on nursing school entirely.
Switch to a different career path.
Immediately retake the exam without additional preparation.

Correct answer: Wait the required period, identify weak areas, study strategically, and retake the exam.

Students should analyze their score report to identify weak areas, develop a targeted study plan, wait the required retake period, and then retake the exam with improved preparation.

Question 173: What is the primary function of ribosomes in a cell?

Lipid storage
Protein synthesis (Correct answer)
Energy production
DNA replication

Correct answer: Protein synthesis

Ribosomes are the sites where messenger RNA is translated into proteins during the process of translation.

Question 174: What is the minimum educational requirement to apply for most entry-level nursing programs (ADN or BSN)?

Master's degree in science
Bachelor's degree in any field
High school diploma or equivalent (GED) (Correct answer)
GED or associate degree

Correct answer: High school diploma or equivalent (GED)

Most entry-level nursing programs (both ADN and BSN) require a minimum of a high school diploma or its equivalent (GED) for admission eligibility.

Question 175: Which sentence has correct parallel structure?

The nurse administered medication, monitored vitals, and documented the results. (Correct answer)
The nurse was administering medication, monitored vitals, and to document the results.
The nurse administered medication, monitored vitals, and was documenting the results.
The nurse administered medication, was monitoring vitals, and documented the results.

Correct answer: The nurse administered medication, monitored vitals, and documented the results.

Parallel structure requires that items in a series use the same grammatical form. All three verbs should be in the same tense: 'administered,' 'monitored,' and 'documented' are all past tense.

Question 176: A patient's weight decreased from 200 pounds to 175 pounds after a new diet and exercise plan. What was the percentage decrease in the patient's weight?

12.5% (Correct answer)
10%
15%
25%

Correct answer: 12.5%

First, find the amount of weight lost: 200 - 175 = 25 pounds. To find the percentage decrease, use the formula: (Amount of Decrease / Original Amount) * 100. So, (25 / 200) * 100 = 0.125 * 100 = 12.5%.

Question 177: Which of the following is the LEAST effective study method for nursing entrance exam preparation?

Teaching concepts to a study partner
Creating concept maps linking related topics
Completing practice questions with answer explanations
Passively rereading textbook chapters multiple times (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Passively rereading textbook chapters multiple times

Passive rereading creates an illusion of familiarity without deep processing or genuine understanding, making it the least effective method compared to active strategies like concept mapping, teaching, and practice questions.

Question 178: A recipe calls for 2/3 cup of solution. If you need to make 4.5 batches, how many cups are needed?

3 cups (Correct answer)
3.5 cups
2.5 cups
2 cups

Correct answer: 3 cups

2/3 × 4.5 = 2/3 × 9/2 = 18/6 = 3 cups.

Question 179: Using context clues, determine the meaning of 'contraindicated' in the following sentence: 'Aspirin is contraindicated in children with viral infections due to the risk of Reye's syndrome.'

Available over the counter
Highly recommended
Not advisable or should not be used (Correct answer)
Prescribed in low doses

Correct answer: Not advisable or should not be used

The context indicates that aspirin should NOT be given to children with viral infections because of a dangerous complication, meaning it is contraindicated — not advisable or should not be used.

Question 180: Which cellular organelle is found in plant cells but NOT in animal cells?

Chloroplast (Correct answer)
Golgi apparatus
Mitochondria
Ribosome

Correct answer: Chloroplast

Chloroplasts are organelles unique to plant cells and algae where photosynthesis converts light energy into chemical energy stored as glucose.

Question 181: The nurse noted the patient's skin had a cyanotic appearance. This observation suggests the patient's skin was:

Yellowish
Bluish (Correct answer)
Red and flushed
Pale and clammy

Correct answer: Bluish

The word 'cyanotic' comes from 'cyan', which refers to a blue-green color. In a medical context, it describes a bluish discoloration of the skin resulting from poor circulation or inadequate oxygenation of the blood.

Question 182: How is the TEAS composite score calculated?

Sum of all correct answers divided by total questions
Simple average of all four section scores (Correct answer)
Only the highest section score is reported
Weighted average where Science counts more than other sections

Correct answer: Simple average of all four section scores

The TEAS composite score is calculated as the average of the four section scores, with each section contributing equally based on the percentage of questions answered correctly.

Question 183: What is phagocytosis?

The release of substances outside the cell via vesicles
The process by which a cell engulfs large particles or microorganisms (Correct answer)
The passive diffusion of water across the cell membrane
The uptake of fluids and small molecules into the cell

Correct answer: The process by which a cell engulfs large particles or microorganisms

Phagocytosis is a type of endocytosis where the cell surrounds and engulfs large particles or microorganisms using the cell membrane.

Question 184: Read the passage: 'Telehealth has emerged as a vital tool in healthcare delivery, particularly in rural areas where access to specialists is limited. Virtual consultations allow patients to receive expert care without traveling long distances. However, challenges remain, including technology barriers for elderly patients and concerns about the quality of physical examinations conducted remotely.' What can be inferred from this passage?

Technology barriers prevent all elderly patients from using telehealth.
Rural patients benefit most from telehealth services.
Telehealth will eventually replace all in-person visits.
Telehealth is beneficial but has limitations that need to be addressed. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Telehealth is beneficial but has limitations that need to be addressed.

The passage presents telehealth as beneficial (vital tool, expert care) while acknowledging challenges (technology barriers, examination quality), supporting the inference that it is helpful but has limitations.

Question 185: Read the passage: 'Antibiotic resistance is one of the greatest threats to global health. The overuse of antibiotics in both human medicine and agriculture has accelerated the development of resistant bacterial strains. Unless significant changes are made in prescribing practices and public awareness, experts warn that common infections could once again become life-threatening.' What is the author's tone in this passage?

Neutral and objective
Dismissive and skeptical
Urgent and cautionary (Correct answer)
Optimistic and encouraging

Correct answer: Urgent and cautionary

The author's use of phrases like 'greatest threats,' 'unless significant changes are made,' and 'could once again become life-threatening' conveys urgency and warning about the serious consequences of antibiotic resistance.

Question 186: What is often the purpose of the interview round in nursing admissions?

To conduct a personality test
To assess physical stamina
To evaluate communication skills and suitability for the nursing profession (Correct answer)
To test knowledge of medical terminology

Correct answer: To evaluate communication skills and suitability for the nursing profession

While academic performance is crucial, nursing also requires strong interpersonal and communication skills, empathy, and a professional demeanor. The interview round allows admissions committees to assess these qualitative aspects, determining a candidate's suitability for a patient-facing role. It helps gauge their motivation, ethical understanding, and ability to interact effectively, which are vital for success in nursing.

Question 187: Based on the passage about hand hygiene, which detail supports the main idea?

Hand hygiene is a simple procedure.
Patient safety is an ongoing risk.
Pathogens are transmitted from patient to patient on the hands of healthcare workers. (Correct answer)
Compliance with protocols can be inconsistent.

Correct answer: Pathogens are transmitted from patient to patient on the hands of healthcare workers.

The statement that pathogens are transmitted on the hands of healthcare workers directly explains *why* hand hygiene is so important for preventing infections. This detail provides the mechanism of transmission that the main idea seeks to interrupt.

Question 188: Read the passage and answer the question that follows. Hand hygiene is the single most effective measure to prevent the spread of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs). Pathogens are frequently transmitted from patient to patient on the hands of healthcare workers. Proper handwashing with soap and water or the use of alcohol-based hand sanitizers can significantly reduce the presence of these microorganisms. Despite its simplicity and effectiveness, compliance with recommended hand hygiene protocols among healthcare staff can be inconsistent, posing an ongoing risk to patient safety.

HAIs are a minor problem in modern medicine.
Alcohol-based sanitizers are superior to soap and water.
Healthcare workers often have poor hygiene.
Hand hygiene is a critical component of preventing infections in hospitals. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Hand hygiene is a critical component of preventing infections in hospitals.

The passage introduces hand hygiene as a key preventative measure, explains how pathogens are transmitted, and discusses the impact of compliance. The overarching theme is the critical role of hand hygiene in preventing infections in healthcare settings.

Question 189: A physician orders 500 mg of amoxicillin. The available supply is 250 mg per capsule. How many capsules should the nurse administer?

2 capsules (Correct answer)
4 capsules
3 capsules
1 capsule

Correct answer: 2 capsules

Using the formula: Desired dose / Available dose = 500 mg / 250 mg = 2 capsules.

Question 190: If a nurse can complete 6 patient assessments in 2.5 hours, how many assessments can she complete in an 8-hour shift?

19
20
16
19.2 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 19.2

Rate: 6 assessments / 2.5 hours = 2.4 assessments/hour. In 8 hours: 2.4 × 8 = 19.2 assessments.

Question 191: Which sentence uses quotation marks correctly with other punctuation?

The patient said "I feel much better today".
The patient said "I feel much better today."
The patient said, "I feel much better today." (Correct answer)
The patient said, "I feel much better today".

Correct answer: The patient said, "I feel much better today."

In American English, periods and commas always go inside quotation marks. A comma precedes a direct quotation, and the period goes inside the closing quotation mark.

Question 192: During which phase of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?

G2 phase
S phase (Correct answer)
G1 phase
M phase

Correct answer: S phase

The S (synthesis) phase is when DNA replication takes place, resulting in each chromosome being duplicated into two identical sister chromatids.

Question 193: What is often the next step in the admission process after a candidate has passed the nursing entrance exam?

Meeting with faculty members for an interview
Payment of a processing fee
Immediately starting classes
Participating in a counseling session for seat allocation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Participating in a counseling session for seat allocation

After successfully passing the nursing entrance exam, candidates are often invited to a counseling session. During this session, based on their merit rank and available seats, they can choose their preferred nursing program or institution. This process ensures a fair and transparent allocation of seats, allowing candidates to finalize their admission based on their performance and choices.

Question 194: A patient weighs 176 pounds. A medication is ordered at 5 mg/kg/day divided into two doses. What is the amount per dose?

200 mg (Correct answer)
100 mg
440 mg
400 mg

Correct answer: 200 mg

Convert pounds to kg: 176 ÷ 2.2 = 80 kg. Total daily dose: 80 × 5 = 400 mg. Divided by 2 doses: 400 ÷ 2 = 200 mg per dose.

Question 195: The TEAS exam consists of how many main content areas?

Five
Three
Two
Four (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Four

The TEAS (Test of Essential Academic Skills) exam covers four main content areas: Reading, Mathematics, Science, and English and Language Usage.

Question 196: If a medication vial costs $12.50 and the hospital uses an average of 8 vials per day, what is the monthly cost for 30 days?

$2,500
$3,750
$4,000
$3,000 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: $3,000

Daily cost: $12.50 × 8 = $100. Monthly cost: $100 × 30 = $3,000.

Question 197: Read the passage: 'Florence Nightingale transformed nursing during the Crimean War by implementing sanitary practices that dramatically reduced mortality rates. She collected statistical data to support her reforms and used innovative graphical presentations to convince officials of the need for change. Her evidence-based approach laid the foundation for modern nursing practice.' Which statement best serves as a supporting detail?

She collected statistical data to support her reforms. (Correct answer)
The Crimean War was an important conflict.
Nursing is an evidence-based profession.
Florence Nightingale was a famous historical figure.

Correct answer: She collected statistical data to support her reforms.

The statement about collecting statistical data is a specific supporting detail from the passage that illustrates how Nightingale accomplished her transformation of nursing.

Question 198: What types of questions are included in the Mathematics section of nursing entrance exams?

Only advanced calculus problems
Only word problems about nursing scenarios
Multiple essay questions about mathematical concepts
Arithmetic, algebra, measurement, and data interpretation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Arithmetic, algebra, measurement, and data interpretation

The Mathematics section covers practical math skills including arithmetic operations, basic algebra, measurement conversions, and data interpretation through charts and graphs.

Question 199: On the day of the nursing entrance exam, which of the following is the most important preparation step?

Cram for 3-4 hours before the exam starts
Arrive exactly at the start time to minimize waiting anxiety
Skip breakfast to avoid feeling sluggish during the exam
Get adequate sleep, eat a nutritious meal, and arrive early with all required materials (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Get adequate sleep, eat a nutritious meal, and arrive early with all required materials

Physical readiness is crucial on exam day: adequate sleep supports cognitive function, a nutritious meal provides sustained energy, and arriving early allows time to settle in and reduce last-minute stress.

Question 200: What is the common citizenship requirement for candidates applying to nursing entrance exams in most countries?

Must be a citizen of the country where the exam is held
Must be a resident of the state or region
Must be a citizen or permanent resident (Correct answer)
Can apply from any country

Correct answer: Must be a citizen or permanent resident

Most nursing entrance exams require candidates to be either citizens or permanent residents of the country where the exam is being held. This ensures that candidates are eligible for admission to institutions within the country.

Question 201: Why do many nursing programs require applicants to complete a criminal background check?

To verify the applicant's identity and address
To ensure applicants have no traffic violations
To determine the applicant's financial responsibility
To protect patients during clinical rotations and future practice (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To protect patients during clinical rotations and future practice

Criminal background checks are required because nursing students interact directly with vulnerable patients during clinical rotations, and patient safety is the primary concern.

Question 202: The nurse needed to bring three items___a thermometer, a stethoscope, and a penlight.

items. A
items; a
items, a
items: a (Correct answer)

Correct answer: items: a

A colon is used to introduce a list or an explanation that follows an independent clause. The first part of the sentence is a complete thought, and it is followed by a list of items.

Question 203: Which of the following best describes the role of an admissions interview in the nursing program selection process?

To assess communication skills, professionalism, and interpersonal qualities (Correct answer)
To assign students to clinical rotation sites
To test clinical nursing knowledge
To negotiate financial aid packages

Correct answer: To assess communication skills, professionalism, and interpersonal qualities

Admissions interviews evaluate the applicant's communication skills, professional demeanor, interpersonal abilities, and readiness for the demands of nursing education and practice.

Question 204: When the equation N₂ + H₂ → __NH₃ is balanced, what is the coefficient for H₂?

1
3 (Correct answer)
6
2

Correct answer: 3

To balance the equation, you need the same number of each type of atom on both sides. The balanced equation is N₂ + 3H₂ → 2NH₃, which gives 2 nitrogen atoms and 6 hydrogen atoms on each side.

Question 205: A nursing program requires a minimum TEAS score of 65%. A student scores 72% on their first attempt. Which statement is correct?

The student must retake the exam to get a higher score.
The student meets the minimum TEAS requirement for eligibility. (Correct answer)
The minimum score means guaranteed admission.
The student needs to score at least 80% to be competitive.

Correct answer: The student meets the minimum TEAS requirement for eligibility.

With a score of 72% exceeding the minimum requirement of 65%, the student meets the TEAS eligibility criterion. However, meeting minimums doesn't guarantee admission in competitive programs.

Question 206: A student has 6 weeks to prepare for the TEAS exam. Which study schedule is most appropriate?

Only study topics you find interesting
Study only on weekends for 8 hours each day
Study 1-2 hours daily with a focus area for each day and weekly practice tests (Correct answer)
Study everything in the last week before the exam

Correct answer: Study 1-2 hours daily with a focus area for each day and weekly practice tests

Consistent daily study of 1-2 hours with organized topic rotation and weekly practice tests provides the best balance of coverage, retention, and sustainability over a 6-week period.

Question 207: How should a student manage test anxiety during nursing entrance exam preparation?

Take anxiety medication without consulting a healthcare provider
Avoid thinking about the exam until test day
Practice relaxation techniques, simulate test conditions, and maintain a positive but realistic mindset (Correct answer)
Rely entirely on natural ability without preparation

Correct answer: Practice relaxation techniques, simulate test conditions, and maintain a positive but realistic mindset

Managing test anxiety involves preparation (which builds confidence), relaxation techniques (deep breathing, progressive muscle relaxation), simulating test conditions, and maintaining a balanced, positive mindset.

Question 208: What advantage does earning a Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) credential provide during the nursing school admission process?

It replaces the need for prerequisite courses
It guarantees acceptance into any nursing program
It exempts applicants from taking entrance exams
It demonstrates healthcare commitment and provides relevant patient care experience (Correct answer)

Correct answer: It demonstrates healthcare commitment and provides relevant patient care experience

A CNA credential demonstrates commitment to healthcare and provides hands-on patient care experience, which many nursing programs value as part of a holistic application review.

Question 209: A hospital memo states: 'To reduce the rate of hospital-acquired infections, all clinical staff must strictly adhere to the new 5-step handwashing protocol before and after every patient contact.' What is the primary assumption the hospital administration is making?

Patients have been complaining about staff hygiene.
Hospital-acquired infections are the only safety issue at the hospital.
The new protocol is superior to the old one for preventing infections. (Correct answer)
Staff are not currently washing their hands enough.

Correct answer: The new protocol is superior to the old one for preventing infections.

The administration's core belief is that there is a direct causal link between the action (implementing a new handwashing protocol) and the desired outcome (reducing infections). This assumes that better hand hygiene is an effective method for preventing the spread of pathogens in a hospital setting.

Question 210: Read the passage: 'The emergence of drug-resistant tuberculosis (TB) represents a significant public health challenge. Multi-drug resistant TB (MDR-TB) does not respond to at least two of the most powerful first-line antibiotics. Treatment for MDR-TB is longer, more expensive, and associated with more severe side effects than standard TB treatment. The World Health Organization estimates that MDR-TB affects approximately 500,000 people annually worldwide.' Based on the passage, which statement is a fact rather than an opinion?

MDR-TB affects approximately 500,000 people annually worldwide. (Correct answer)
Standard TB treatment is easy and affordable for all patients.
Drug-resistant TB is the world's most serious health problem.
MDR-TB treatment should be the top priority for all governments.

Correct answer: MDR-TB affects approximately 500,000 people annually worldwide.

The WHO's estimate of 500,000 annual cases is a verifiable fact cited from an authoritative source, while the other options are opinions or unsubstantiated claims.

Question 211: Each of the patients in the semi-private room ___ given a specific dietary plan.

are
have been
were
was (Correct answer)

Correct answer: was

Indefinite pronouns like 'each', 'every', 'everyone', and 'anyone' are singular. Therefore, they require a singular verb, which in this case is 'was'.

Question 212: A nurse is caring for a postoperative patient who suddenly becomes anxious and restless. Critical thinking requires the nurse to first consider which possibility?

The patient is having a reaction to the anesthesia wearing off
The patient is experiencing anxiety about their recovery
The patient may be experiencing a physiological complication (Correct answer)
The patient needs additional pain medication

Correct answer: The patient may be experiencing a physiological complication

Critical thinking requires ruling out physiological causes first when a patient exhibits sudden behavioral changes, as restlessness and anxiety can be early signs of serious complications like hemorrhage, hypoxia, or pulmonary embolism.

Question 213: Which subatomic particle has a negative charge and orbits the nucleus of an atom?

Electron (Correct answer)
Photon
Proton
Neutron

Correct answer: Electron

Electrons are negatively charged particles that exist in shells or orbitals around the central nucleus. Protons are positive and neutrons are neutral, both located within the nucleus.

NEX NLN Nursing Entrance Exam

The NLN NEX assesses nursing program applicants in verbal ability, mathematics, and science. Schools use composite scores (0-300) for admissions decisions.

163

Questions

180 min

Time Limit

50%

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