Neuropathy Practice Test — Questions and Answers
Question 1: Which symptom suggests autonomic involvement rather than purely sensory neuropathy?
- Numbness in the toes
- Burning foot pain
- Loss of vibration sense
- Orthostatic dizziness on standing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Orthostatic dizziness on standing
Orthostatic dizziness reflects autonomic dysfunction affecting blood pressure regulation.
Question 2: Genetic testing may be appropriate when neuropathy presents with what feature?
- Resolution within one day
- No symptoms at all
- A strong family history and early onset (Correct answer)
- Sudden onset after surgery only
Correct answer: A strong family history and early onset
Hereditary neuropathies like Charcot-Marie-Tooth are suspected with family history and early onset, warranting genetic testing.
Question 3: Which symptom pattern best describes a small-fiber neuropathy?
- Burning pain and temperature loss with preserved strength and reflexes (Correct answer)
- Loss of vibration with brisk reflexes
- Pure muscle wasting
- Profound weakness with normal sensation
Correct answer: Burning pain and temperature loss with preserved strength and reflexes
Small-fiber neuropathy causes burning pain and thermal loss while strength and reflexes stay intact.
Question 4: A patient reports that their hand symptoms are worst at night and improve with shaking the wrist. This is most characteristic of:
- Carpal tunnel syndrome (median neuropathy) (Correct answer)
- Generalized autonomic neuropathy
- Foot drop
- Optic neuropathy
Correct answer: Carpal tunnel syndrome (median neuropathy)
Nocturnal hand tingling relieved by shaking ('flick sign') is classic for carpal tunnel syndrome.
Question 5: For neuropathy caused by alcohol use, which intervention is essential to treatment?
- Reducing water intake
- Adding more sugar
- Alcohol cessation (Correct answer)
- Increasing alcohol intake
Correct answer: Alcohol cessation
Stopping alcohol removes the toxic cause and is essential to managing alcoholic neuropathy.
Question 6: The stocking-glove pattern of sensory loss in diabetic neuropathy reflects damage to which fiber types first?
- Large myelinated fibers only
- Cranial nerve fibers
- Small unmyelinated C fibers and Aδ fibers first (Correct answer)
- Motor fibers only
Correct answer: Small unmyelinated C fibers and Aδ fibers first
Small nerve fibers (C and Aδ) are damaged early in diabetic neuropathy, causing pain and temperature loss before large-fiber signs appear.
Question 7: A lumbar puncture may be used in diagnosing neuropathy when which condition is suspected?
- Common cold
- Mild dehydration
- Simple muscle strain
- Inflammatory or autoimmune neuropathy (e.g., Guillain-Barré) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Inflammatory or autoimmune neuropathy (e.g., Guillain-Barré)
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis helps diagnose inflammatory neuropathies like Guillain-Barré syndrome.
Question 8: Which systemic disease is the most common cause of peripheral neuropathy in the United States?
- Hypothyroidism
- Lupus
- Rheumatoid arthritis
- Diabetes mellitus (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Diabetes mellitus
Diabetes mellitus is the leading cause of peripheral neuropathy in the US, affecting up to 50% of people with diabetes.
Question 9: The monofilament test is used in neuropathy screening to assess:
- Lung capacity
- Protective sensation in the feet (Correct answer)
- Color vision
- Hearing thresholds
Correct answer: Protective sensation in the feet
The 10-gram monofilament test checks whether a patient can feel light touch, indicating protective sensation.
Question 10: Which symptom would suggest motor nerve involvement rather than sensory?
- Burning pain
- Numbness
- Tingling
- Muscle weakness and wasting (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Muscle weakness and wasting
Motor nerve damage causes muscle weakness and atrophy, while sensory damage causes numbness and tingling.
Question 11: Uremia-associated neuropathy occurs as a complication of which condition?
- Liver failure
- Pulmonary fibrosis
- Chronic kidney disease (Correct answer)
- Heart failure
Correct answer: Chronic kidney disease
Chronic kidney disease leads to uremic neuropathy due to accumulation of toxins that damage peripheral nerves.
Question 12: Which diagnostic test is considered the gold standard for confirming gastroparesis?
- Hydrogen breath test
- Abdominal ultrasound
- Gastric emptying scintigraphy (nuclear scan) (Correct answer)
- Upper endoscopy
Correct answer: Gastric emptying scintigraphy (nuclear scan)
Gastric emptying scintigraphy using a radiolabeled meal is the gold standard for diagnosing gastroparesis.
Question 13: According to ADA guidelines, at what point after type 2 diabetes diagnosis should peripheral neuropathy screening begin?
- 5 years after diagnosis
- Only when symptoms develop
- At the time of diagnosis (Correct answer)
- 10 years after diagnosis
Correct answer: At the time of diagnosis
ADA recommends screening for diabetic peripheral neuropathy at the time of type 2 diabetes diagnosis because neuropathy may already be present.
Question 14: Which blood test is commonly ordered to rule out a reversible cause of neuropathy?
- Vitamin B12 level (Correct answer)
- Pulmonary function test
- Bone density scan
- Liver ultrasound
Correct answer: Vitamin B12 level
Vitamin B12 deficiency is a common, treatable cause of peripheral neuropathy.
Question 15: What is the medical term for the burning, tingling 'pins and needles' sensation common in neuropathy?
- Ataxia
- Paresthesia (Correct answer)
- Aphasia
- Apnea
Correct answer: Paresthesia
Paresthesia refers to abnormal sensations such as tingling, prickling, or burning.
Question 16: Which skin biopsy finding confirms small fiber neuropathy in diabetes?
- Reduced intraepidermal nerve fiber density (IENFD) (Correct answer)
- Demyelinated large axons
- Inflammatory infiltrate around vessels
- Amyloid deposits in dermis
Correct answer: Reduced intraepidermal nerve fiber density (IENFD)
Skin punch biopsy showing reduced IENFD is the gold standard for diagnosing small fiber neuropathy in diabetic patients.
Question 17: A patient on gabapentin should be monitored for which common side effect?
- Improved night vision
- Increased height
- Hair growth
- Drowsiness and dizziness (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Drowsiness and dizziness
Gabapentin commonly causes sedation and dizziness, especially when starting therapy.
Question 18: Which nerve conduction study finding is most characteristic of diabetic polyneuropathy?
- Reduced sural nerve sensory amplitude with slowed conduction velocity (Correct answer)
- Conduction block in proximal segments
- Normal sensory responses with abnormal F-waves only
- Fibrillation potentials in proximal muscles
Correct answer: Reduced sural nerve sensory amplitude with slowed conduction velocity
The sural nerve sensory nerve action potential amplitude reduction with slowed velocity is the earliest and most sensitive NCS finding in diabetic polyneuropathy.
Question 19: A patient reports electric, shooting pains down the limb. This type of neuropathic pain is best described as:
- Dull aching
- Lancinating (Correct answer)
- Throbbing
- Cramping only
Correct answer: Lancinating
Lancinating pain is sharp, sudden, and shooting, typical of neuropathic pain.
Question 20: Charcot neuroarthropathy (Charcot foot) is a catastrophic complication of diabetic neuropathy affecting which structure?
- Joints and bones of the foot (Correct answer)
- Peripheral blood vessels
- Spinal cord
- Skin of the foot
Correct answer: Joints and bones of the foot
Charcot neuroarthropathy causes progressive destruction of joints and bones of the foot due to loss of protective sensation.
Question 21: Orthostatic hypotension in autonomic neuropathy is defined as a systolic blood pressure drop of at least how many mmHg upon standing?
- 20 mmHg (Correct answer)
- 40 mmHg
- 30 mmHg
- 10 mmHg
Correct answer: 20 mmHg
Orthostatic hypotension is defined as a drop of ≥20 mmHg systolic or ≥10 mmHg diastolic within 3 minutes of standing.
Question 22: Mononeuropathy differs from polyneuropathy in that mononeuropathy:
- Affects only autonomic nerves
- Affects a single nerve (Correct answer)
- Affects nerves symmetrically
- Affects the brain only
Correct answer: Affects a single nerve
Mononeuropathy involves damage to one specific nerve, while polyneuropathy affects many nerves.
Question 23: Exposure to which heavy metal is a known toxic cause of peripheral neuropathy?
- Lead (Correct answer)
- Calcium
- Sodium
- Potassium
Correct answer: Lead
Lead and other heavy metals are neurotoxic and can cause peripheral neuropathy.
Question 24: What is the classic cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) finding in Guillain-Barré Syndrome?
- Elevated protein with normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) (Correct answer)
- Elevated white blood cells with normal protein
- Normal protein and normal white blood cell count
- Decreased glucose with elevated protein
Correct answer: Elevated protein with normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation)
Albuminocytologic dissociation — elevated CSF protein without a corresponding increase in white blood cells — is the hallmark CSF finding in GBS.
Question 25: A patient suddenly develops weakness and numbness confined to the distribution of a single nerve, such as wrist drop. This pattern is called:
- Mononeuropathy (Correct answer)
- Autonomic neuropathy
- Radiculopathy of all roots
- Symmetric polyneuropathy
Correct answer: Mononeuropathy
Mononeuropathy involves damage to a single peripheral nerve, producing localized signs.
Question 26: Colchicine toxicity causing neuromuscular complications presents as which pattern?
- Acute demyelinating polyneuropathy
- Mononeuritis multiplex
- Pure sensory neuropathy with paresthesias
- Neuromyopathy with proximal weakness and elevated CK (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Neuromyopathy with proximal weakness and elevated CK
Colchicine toxicity typically causes a combined neuromyopathy with proximal muscle weakness and elevated creatine kinase, especially in renal failure.
Question 27: A patient describes a sensation of walking on cushions or thick socks despite being barefoot. This altered perception is best classified as which neuropathy symptom?
- Paresthesia (Correct answer)
- Hyperalgesia
- Allodynia
- Anhidrosis
Correct answer: Paresthesia
Paresthesia is an abnormal sensation such as tingling, prickling, or the feeling of padding under the feet.
Question 28: Which first-line medication is FDA-approved for painful diabetic peripheral neuropathy?
- Pregabalin (Correct answer)
- Carbamazepine
- Gabapentin
- Amitriptyline
Correct answer: Pregabalin
Pregabalin (Lyrica) is FDA-approved for painful diabetic peripheral neuropathy and has strong clinical trial evidence.
Question 29: Diabetic amyotrophy (proximal neuropathy) most characteristically presents with which symptom?
- Bilateral foot tingling
- Foot drop
- Loss of ankle reflexes only
- Severe unilateral thigh pain and weakness (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Severe unilateral thigh pain and weakness
Diabetic amyotrophy presents with acute, severe, often unilateral pain and weakness in the proximal leg muscles.
Question 30: Autonomic neuropathy causing diarrhea in diabetic patients is thought to involve dysfunction of which autonomic process?
- Excessive gastric acid production
- Abnormal intestinal motility and reduced sphincter tone (Correct answer)
- Reduced bile acid secretion
- Pancreatic exocrine dysfunction
Correct answer: Abnormal intestinal motility and reduced sphincter tone
Diabetic autonomic diarrhea results from abnormal gut motility, impaired sphincter control, and sometimes bacterial overgrowth due to reduced gut peristalsis.
Question 31: Insulin neuritis is a paradoxical worsening of neuropathic pain that occurs in which clinical situation?
- Switching from insulin to oral medications
- Developing renal failure
- Starting a high-fat diet
- Rapid improvement of blood glucose control (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Rapid improvement of blood glucose control
Insulin neuritis occurs when rapid normalization of blood sugar triggers a painful neuropathy, possibly due to epineural arteriovenous shunting.
Question 32: Sudomotor function testing using the quantitative sudomotor axon reflex test (QSART) evaluates the function of which nerve fiber type?
- Large myelinated sensory fibers
- Parasympathetic preganglionic fibers
- Motor fibers to skeletal muscle
- Postganglionic sympathetic cholinergic small fibers (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Postganglionic sympathetic cholinergic small fibers
QSART measures sweat output to assess postganglionic sympathetic cholinergic small fiber integrity, providing an indirect measure of sudomotor autonomic function.
Question 33: Which symptom combination suggests pandysautonomia rather than isolated sensory neuropathy?
- Burning feet only
- Orthostatic hypotension, gastroparesis, and bladder dysfunction together (Correct answer)
- Pure foot weakness
- Numb toes only
Correct answer: Orthostatic hypotension, gastroparesis, and bladder dysfunction together
Widespread autonomic features across multiple systems indicate pandysautonomia.
Question 34: Which patient behavior most significantly increases ulceration risk in a patient with established sensory neuropathy?
- Walking barefoot indoors (Correct answer)
- Using emollient cream on the feet
- Taking daily walks in well-fitted shoes
- Trimming toenails regularly
Correct answer: Walking barefoot indoors
Walking barefoot exposes insensate feet to injury from floors, debris, and temperature extremes that the patient cannot feel, dramatically increasing ulcer risk.
Question 35: What is a key reason to identify the underlying cause before starting neuropathy treatment?
- It speeds up nerve conduction tests
- Treating the cause may halt or reverse nerve damage (Correct answer)
- Causes never affect treatment
- It is required for insurance only
Correct answer: Treating the cause may halt or reverse nerve damage
Addressing the root cause, such as diabetes or B12 deficiency, can stop progression and sometimes reverse symptoms.
Question 36: Celiac disease-associated neuropathy is thought to be triggered by which mechanism?
- Pancreatic enzyme deficiency
- Malabsorption of sodium and potassium
- Immune-mediated attack triggered by gluten sensitivity (Correct answer)
- Direct gluten toxicity to axons
Correct answer: Immune-mediated attack triggered by gluten sensitivity
Gluten sensitivity triggers immune responses that can attack peripheral nerves even without gastrointestinal symptoms.
Question 37: Which test is most commonly used to evaluate the function of peripheral nerves?
- Chest X-ray
- Nerve conduction study (NCS) (Correct answer)
- Colonoscopy
- Echocardiogram
Correct answer: Nerve conduction study (NCS)
Nerve conduction studies measure how quickly and strongly electrical signals travel through nerves.
Question 38: Which of the following is an early motor sign of peripheral neuropathy affecting the feet?
- Increased muscle bulk in the calves
- Resting tremor of the hands
- Exaggerated knee reflexes
- Difficulty with fine toe movements and foot weakness (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Difficulty with fine toe movements and foot weakness
Motor neuropathy causes distal weakness, making fine foot and toe movements difficult.
Question 39: Linezolid, an antibiotic for resistant gram-positive infections, causes peripheral neuropathy through which toxic mechanism?
- Folate antagonism in Schwann cells
- Mitochondrial protein synthesis inhibition (Correct answer)
- Autoimmune mimicry
- Blocking nerve sodium channels
Correct answer: Mitochondrial protein synthesis inhibition
Linezolid inhibits mitochondrial ribosomal protein synthesis, leading to peripheral neuropathy with prolonged use.
Question 40: Which complication makes early diagnosis of foot neuropathy critical?
- Unnoticed ulcers leading to infection or amputation (Correct answer)
- Faster healing of all wounds
- Spontaneous full recovery
- Improved sensation over time
Correct answer: Unnoticed ulcers leading to infection or amputation
Loss of sensation allows injuries to go unnoticed, increasing risk of ulcers, infection, and amputation.
Question 41: Which test is used to assess large fiber function in diabetic neuropathy screening?
- 10-g Semmes-Weinstein monofilament test (Correct answer)
- Nerve biopsy
- Warm/cold temperature discrimination
- Pinprick sensation test
Correct answer: 10-g Semmes-Weinstein monofilament test
The 10-g Semmes-Weinstein monofilament detects loss of protective sensation by assessing large myelinated fiber function.
Question 42: Which symptom is a hallmark of genitourinary autonomic neuropathy in male diabetic patients?
- Erectile dysfunction
- Testicular pain
- Urinary retention and overflow incontinence
- Both erectile dysfunction and urinary dysfunction (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Both erectile dysfunction and urinary dysfunction
Genitourinary autonomic neuropathy in men causes both erectile dysfunction (parasympathetic) and bladder dysfunction with overflow incontinence.
Question 43: Which pathophysiological mechanism is central to hyperglycemia-induced nerve damage in diabetes?
- Hypocalcemia-induced demyelination
- Elevated LDL depositing in nerves
- Polyol pathway activation and oxidative stress (Correct answer)
- Excess insulin signaling
Correct answer: Polyol pathway activation and oxidative stress
Excess glucose enters the polyol pathway, depleting NADPH and increasing oxidative stress, which damages axons and Schwann cells.
Question 44: Which symptom would be UNUSUAL for a typical length-dependent sensory neuropathy and should prompt evaluation for an alternative diagnosis?
- Tingling that slowly ascends the legs
- Symmetric burning in both feet
- Gradual numbness starting in the toes
- Sudden severe weakness of one arm only (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Sudden severe weakness of one arm only
Sudden focal weakness of one limb is atypical for symmetric length-dependent neuropathy and suggests another cause.
Question 45: A patient feels lightheaded and their heart rate fails to rise appropriately when standing. This points to dysfunction of which system?
- Somatic motor system
- Visual system
- Cerebellar system
- Cardiovascular autonomic system (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Cardiovascular autonomic system
Cardiovascular autonomic neuropathy impairs heart rate and blood pressure responses to position change.
Question 46: What is the most common form of diabetic neuropathy?
- Autonomic neuropathy
- Focal mononeuropathy
- Proximal neuropathy
- Distal symmetric polyneuropathy (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Distal symmetric polyneuropathy
Distal symmetric polyneuropathy is the most prevalent form, affecting the feet and hands in a stocking-glove pattern.
Question 47: Why is a thorough medication review part of neuropathy diagnosis?
- It replaces all blood testing
- It is only for billing purposes
- Medications never affect nerves
- Certain drugs, such as some chemotherapies, can cause neuropathy (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Certain drugs, such as some chemotherapies, can cause neuropathy
Drug-induced neuropathy from agents like chemotherapy can be identified and addressed by reviewing medications.
Question 48: Which finding on examination suggests large-fiber sensory neuropathy?
- Loss of vibration sense and proprioception (Correct answer)
- Increased muscle bulk
- Normal reflexes and full strength
- Improved fine touch
Correct answer: Loss of vibration sense and proprioception
Large-fiber involvement typically reduces vibration sense, proprioception, and deep tendon reflexes.
Question 49: Which autonomic reflex is tested by the Valsalva maneuver in the evaluation of autonomic neuropathy?
- Cardiovagal and adrenergic baroreflex response (Correct answer)
- Pupillary light reflex
- Vasovagal syncope threshold
- Sudomotor reflex
Correct answer: Cardiovagal and adrenergic baroreflex response
The Valsalva maneuver tests both cardiovagal function (heart rate response) and adrenergic function (blood pressure recovery) during forced expiration.
Question 50: Duloxetine is FDA-approved for painful diabetic neuropathy and works primarily through which mechanism?
- Opioid receptor agonism
- GABA-A receptor modulation
- Sodium channel blockade
- Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibition (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibition
Duloxetine inhibits reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine, enhancing descending pain inhibitory pathways.
Question 51: Cardiac autonomic neuropathy (CAN) is associated with which serious cardiac risk?
- Aortic stenosis
- Pericardial effusion
- Sudden cardiac death due to arrhythmia (Correct answer)
- Mitral valve prolapse
Correct answer: Sudden cardiac death due to arrhythmia
CAN is associated with a significantly increased risk of sudden cardiac death due to QT prolongation and cardiac arrhythmias.
Question 52: Which screening tool is validated for assessing neuropathic pain quality and intensity in clinical practice?
- McGill Pain Questionnaire only
- Visual analogue scale alone
- Beck Depression Inventory
- Douleur Neuropathique 4 (DN4) questionnaire (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Douleur Neuropathique 4 (DN4) questionnaire
The DN4 questionnaire discriminates neuropathic from non-neuropathic pain using 10 items about pain quality and associated sensory symptoms, with a cutoff score of 4.
Question 53: Diabetic neuropathic cachexia is characterized by which combination of features?
- Proximal weakness, fever, and elevated CRP
- Foot drop, ankle weakness, and insomnia
- Cranial nerve palsies and hypertension
- Severe weight loss, depression, and painful neuropathy (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Severe weight loss, depression, and painful neuropathy
Diabetic neuropathic cachexia presents with profound weight loss, severe neuropathic pain, and depression, predominantly in older men.
Question 54: Why is regular foot care especially important for neuropathy patients?
- To detect injuries early since pain warning is reduced (Correct answer)
- Because their feet grow faster
- Because shoes cause neuropathy
- To improve nerve conduction speed
Correct answer: To detect injuries early since pain warning is reduced
Reduced sensation means daily foot inspection is needed to catch wounds before they worsen.
Question 55: Neuropathy-related gait abnormalities most commonly manifest as which pattern?
- Scissor gait
- Antalgic gait
- Waddling gait
- High-stepping (steppage) gait due to foot drop (Correct answer)
Correct answer: High-stepping (steppage) gait due to foot drop
Foot drop from peroneal nerve or anterior compartment weakness causes a steppage gait where the patient lifts the foot high to avoid tripping on a dropped toe.
Question 56: What is the primary mechanism by which IVIG benefits patients with inflammatory neuropathies?
- Direct regeneration of damaged myelin sheaths
- Immune modulation through Fc receptor blockade, complement inhibition, and idiotype interactions (Correct answer)
- Direct antibacterial action against triggering pathogens
- Replacement of antibodies depleted by autoimmune attack
Correct answer: Immune modulation through Fc receptor blockade, complement inhibition, and idiotype interactions
IVIG exerts multiple immunomodulatory effects including Fc receptor blockade on macrophages, complement activation inhibition, and neutralization of pathogenic antibodies.
Question 57: Approximately what percentage of GBS patients recover the ability to walk independently within 6 months?
- Nearly 100%
- About 50%
- About 85% (Correct answer)
- About 20-30%
Correct answer: About 85%
Approximately 85% of GBS patients regain independent ambulation within 6 months, though some may have persistent fatigue, pain, or mild weakness.
Question 58: Which medication used for tuberculosis is a well-known cause of isoniazid-induced neuropathy?
- Isoniazid (Correct answer)
- Pyrazinamide
- Ethambutol
- Rifampin
Correct answer: Isoniazid
Isoniazid causes peripheral neuropathy by interfering with pyridoxine (vitamin B6) metabolism, and supplementation is given prophylactically.
Question 59: What are the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system?
- The brain and spinal cord (Correct answer)
- The digestive system and the autonomic nervous system
- The brain and the spine
- The heart and the peripheral nervous system
- The spinal cord and the periphery
Correct answer: The brain and spinal cord
The central nervous system (CNS) consists of the brain and the spinal cord, which act as the main control center for the body. The peripheral nervous system (PNS) comprises all the nerves that branch out from the CNS to the rest of the body, including muscles and organs.
Question 60: Which finding indicates large-fiber involvement on examination?
- Loss of pinprick only
- Burning pain only
- Excessive sweating
- Loss of vibration and proprioception (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Loss of vibration and proprioception
Large fibers carry vibration and position sense, so their loss reflects large-fiber damage.
Question 61: Gustatory sweating (Frey's syndrome) after eating is a form of autonomic neuropathy associated with damage to which nerve?
- Glossopharyngeal nerve
- Auriculotemporal branch of trigeminal nerve (Correct answer)
- Hypoglossal nerve
- Facial nerve
Correct answer: Auriculotemporal branch of trigeminal nerve
Frey's syndrome results from aberrant reinnervation of the auriculotemporal nerve, causing sweating during eating instead of salivation.
Question 62: Which bedside tool is used to screen for loss of protective sensation in the feet?
- Reflex hammer alone
- Stethoscope
- Tuning fork at 64 Hz only
- 10-gram monofilament (Correct answer)
Correct answer: 10-gram monofilament
The 10-gram Semmes-Weinstein monofilament test screens for loss of protective sensation, especially in diabetics.
Question 63: Multiple system atrophy (MSA) is distinguished from pure autonomic failure by which feature?
- Involvement of the central nervous system with cerebellar or parkinsonian features (Correct answer)
- Response to fludrocortisone treatment
- Presence of orthostatic hypotension
- Onset after age 70
Correct answer: Involvement of the central nervous system with cerebellar or parkinsonian features
MSA involves both autonomic failure and central nervous system degeneration (cerebellar ataxia or parkinsonism), unlike pure autonomic failure.
Question 64: Which type of neuropathy is characteristically associated with IgM monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance (MGUS)?
- Mononeuropathy multiplex from vasculitis
- Anti-GM1-associated pure motor neuropathy
- Autonomic neuropathy with orthostatic hypotension
- Anti-MAG neuropathy with predominantly large fiber sensory loss (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Anti-MAG neuropathy with predominantly large fiber sensory loss
IgM MGUS frequently produces anti-MAG (myelin-associated glycoprotein) antibodies that cause a demyelinating sensory neuropathy with prominent distal sensory loss and gait ataxia.
Question 65: Which bedside test is used to evaluate cardiovagal autonomic function in cardiac autonomic neuropathy?
- Thermoregulatory sweat test
- Quantitative sudomotor axon reflex test
- Tilt table test
- Heart rate variability with deep breathing (E:I ratio) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Heart rate variability with deep breathing (E:I ratio)
The heart rate response to deep breathing (E:I ratio) is a sensitive, non-invasive test of parasympathetic cardiac function.
Question 66: Which structured educational program is most effective in preventing diabetic foot complications in neuropathy patients?
- Therapeutic patient education on foot care (Correct answer)
- Carbohydrate counting courses only
- Exercise rehabilitation programs
- Dietary counseling for weight loss
Correct answer: Therapeutic patient education on foot care
Structured therapeutic patient education on foot inspection, proper footwear, and early wound recognition significantly reduces foot complications.
Question 67: Over time, untreated motor neuropathy can lead to which visible foot deformity due to muscle imbalance?
- Increased calf muscle bulk
- Hammer toes and high arches (Correct answer)
- Webbed toes
- Flat reduced arches only with no toe change
Correct answer: Hammer toes and high arches
Intrinsic foot muscle weakness causes clawing/hammer toes and high arches.
Question 68: Which occupational therapy intervention is most beneficial for a patient with hand neuropathy affecting fine motor skills?
- Nerve conduction studies monitoring
- Adaptive equipment and hand-strengthening exercises (Correct answer)
- Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)
- Corticosteroid injections into carpal tunnel
Correct answer: Adaptive equipment and hand-strengthening exercises
Adaptive equipment (button hooks, jar openers) combined with targeted hand exercises helps neuropathy patients maintain independence in daily tasks.
Question 69: What type of cream can cause a burning sensation?
- Lidocaine (Correct answer)
- Benzocaine
- Betadine
- Iodine
- Caffeine
Correct answer: Lidocaine
While lidocaine is primarily used for numbing and pain relief, some individuals may experience a temporary burning or stinging sensation upon application, especially if they have sensitive skin or if the skin is broken. This is a known potential side effect for some topical anesthetics, including lidocaine.
Question 70: Untreated hypothyroidism can contribute to peripheral neuropathy because it:
- Causes fluid buildup and metabolic changes that compress and damage nerves (Correct answer)
- Directly infects nerve tissue
- Raises blood sugar permanently
- Increases nerve regeneration
Correct answer: Causes fluid buildup and metabolic changes that compress and damage nerves
Hypothyroidism can lead to fluid retention and metabolic dysfunction that injure peripheral nerves.
Question 71: Which symptom reflects autonomic neuropathy affecting sweat glands in the feet?
- Increased hair growth
- Excessively moist, sweaty feet
- Bright red painful toes
- Dry, cracked skin from reduced sweating (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Dry, cracked skin from reduced sweating
Autonomic damage often reduces sweating distally, causing dry, cracked skin prone to fissures.
Question 72: Oxaliplatin causes a unique acute neuropathy during or immediately after infusion characterized by which symptom?
- Proximal muscle weakness
- Cold-triggered dysesthesias in hands and throat (Correct answer)
- Burning feet and ankle edema
- Sudden hearing loss
Correct answer: Cold-triggered dysesthesias in hands and throat
Oxaliplatin causes an acute cold-triggered dysesthesia in the hands and oropharynx immediately after infusion, distinct from its cumulative sensory neuropathy.
Question 73: Which topical treatment is FDA-approved for localized painful diabetic neuropathy of the feet?
- Capsaicin 8% patch (Qutenza) (Correct answer)
- Topical gabapentin cream
- Lidocaine 5% patch
- Diclofenac gel
Correct answer: Capsaicin 8% patch (Qutenza)
The capsaicin 8% high-concentration patch is FDA-approved for diabetic neuropathic foot pain and depletes substance P from nociceptors.
Question 74: Fall prevention is critical in neuropathy patients because sensory and proprioceptive loss creates which primary hazard?
- Impaired postural stability and increased fall risk (Correct answer)
- Cardiovascular instability during exertion
- Increased cognitive impairment
- Progressive muscle atrophy only
Correct answer: Impaired postural stability and increased fall risk
Loss of proprioception and sensory feedback impairs balance and postural reflexes, making neuropathy patients highly prone to falls and fractures.
Question 75: What kind of tests might particularly be done to determine the location and extent of nerve damage?
- CT scans
- Laboratory tests
- Neurological tests (Correct answer)
- Radiological tests
- MRI
Correct answer: Neurological tests
Neurological tests, such as nerve conduction studies (NCS) and electromyography (EMG), are specifically designed to assess nerve function and muscle response. These tests can precisely identify the location, type, and extent of nerve damage, which is crucial for diagnosing and managing neuropathy.
Question 76: What type of test looks at your autonomic nerve fibers?
- Autonomic reflex screen (Correct answer)
- Autonomic function test
- Autonomic neuropsychiatric test
- Autonomic screening test
- Autonomic neurophysiology test
Correct answer: Autonomic reflex screen
An autonomic reflex screen is a specific battery of tests designed to evaluate the function of the autonomic nervous system, which controls involuntary bodily functions. These tests assess various reflexes, such as sudomotor function (sweating), heart rate variability, and blood pressure responses, to determine the health and integrity of autonomic nerve fibers. It directly measures the body's involuntary responses mediated by these nerves.
Question 77: What can you get from a blood test?
- Diseases
- Cancer
- Vitamin deficiencies (Correct answer)
- Health risks
- Preexisting conditions
Correct answer: Vitamin deficiencies
A blood test is a common diagnostic tool that can reveal a wide range of information about a person's health, including levels of various vitamins and minerals. Significant vitamin deficiencies, such as B12 deficiency, can be a cause or contributing factor to neuropathy, making blood tests crucial for diagnosis.
Question 78: Why are foot ulcers a serious risk for people with peripheral neuropathy?
- Nerves cause excessive sweating that softens skin
- Increased pain makes patients walk more
- Neuropathy thickens the skin protectively
- Loss of sensation means injuries go unnoticed (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Loss of sensation means injuries go unnoticed
Reduced sensation lets minor wounds go unnoticed and worsen, sometimes leading to serious infection.
Question 79: Alpha-lipoic acid is a supplement studied mainly for neuropathy related to which condition?
- Diabetes (Correct answer)
- Glaucoma
- Hypertension
- Asthma
Correct answer: Diabetes
Alpha-lipoic acid, an antioxidant, has been studied for symptom relief in diabetic neuropathy.
Question 80: Why does peripheral neuropathy often begin in the feet before the hands?
- Hands have thicker skin
- Feet are closer to the brain
- The feet have no nerves
- Longest nerves are affected first (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Longest nerves are affected first
Length-dependent neuropathy affects the longest nerves first, which reach the feet.
Question 81: Neuropathic pain that is refractory to first and second-line pharmacological treatments may benefit from which interventional procedure?
- Epidural steroid injection
- Peripheral nerve biopsy
- Spinal cord stimulation (SCS) (Correct answer)
- Lumbar sympathetic block
Correct answer: Spinal cord stimulation (SCS)
Spinal cord stimulation is an evidence-based neuromodulation approach for refractory neuropathic pain, particularly in painful diabetic neuropathy.
Question 82: What are the nerves that control muscles and movement in the body?
- Pediatric neuropathy
- Autonomic neuropathy
- Motor neuropathy (Correct answer)
- Sensory neuropathy
Correct answer: Motor neuropathy
Motor neuropathy specifically refers to damage to the motor nerves, which are responsible for transmitting signals from the brain and spinal cord to the muscles, controlling voluntary movement. When these nerves are affected, it can lead to muscle weakness, cramps, spasms, and impaired coordination.
Question 83: Which medication class is first-line for symptomatic orthostatic hypotension in autonomic neuropathy?
- Diuretics
- Midodrine (alpha-1 agonist) (Correct answer)
- ACE inhibitors
- Beta-blockers
Correct answer: Midodrine (alpha-1 agonist)
Midodrine, an alpha-1 adrenergic agonist, increases peripheral vascular resistance and is first-line for symptomatic orthostatic hypotension.
Question 84: Why are opioids generally not preferred as first-line neuropathic pain treatment?
- They have no side effects
- They speed nerve regeneration
- Risk of dependence and limited long-term benefit (Correct answer)
- They cure neuropathy
Correct answer: Risk of dependence and limited long-term benefit
Opioids carry addiction risk and offer limited durable relief, so they are reserved rather than first-line.
Question 85: Which immunosuppressant used in organ transplantation is a recognized cause of peripheral neuropathy?
- Hydroxychloroquine
- Mycophenolate mofetil
- Azathioprine
- Tacrolimus (FK506) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Tacrolimus (FK506)
Tacrolimus can cause peripheral neuropathy in transplant patients, thought to be related to its calcineurin inhibition affecting Schwann cells.
Question 86: What might lidocaine patches offer?
- A numbing sensation
- Pain relief (Correct answer)
- A cooling sensation
- Inhibition of nerve impulses
- Hearing loss reduction
Correct answer: Pain relief
Lidocaine patches are topical medications that deliver lidocaine, a local anesthetic, directly to the skin. They work by blocking nerve signals in the area where they are applied, thereby providing localized pain relief, particularly useful for neuropathic pain.
Question 87: A patient with neuropathy reports inability to sense a full bladder and incomplete emptying. This bladder dysfunction is due to:
- Increased reflexes
- Excess muscle strength
- Damage to autonomic nerves supplying the bladder (Correct answer)
- A urinary tract stone only
Correct answer: Damage to autonomic nerves supplying the bladder
Autonomic neuropathy can impair bladder sensation and emptying, causing retention.
Question 88: Which of the following standard immune therapies is specifically effective for Multifocal Motor Neuropathy (MMN) but NOT corticosteroids or plasmapheresis?
- Azathioprine
- Mycophenolate mofetil
- Rituximab
- Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG)
IVIG is the treatment of choice for MMN; corticosteroids and plasmapheresis are not only ineffective but may worsen the condition, making MMN unique among inflammatory neuropathies.
Question 89: Which lifestyle measure is most important for preventing complications in diabetic foot neuropathy?
- Daily foot inspection and proper footwear (Correct answer)
- Soaking feet in very hot water
- Ignoring small cuts
- Walking barefoot outdoors
Correct answer: Daily foot inspection and proper footwear
Daily inspection and protective footwear help prevent unnoticed injuries and ulcers in numb feet.
Question 90: A patient with neuropathy frequently trips and reports a 'slapping' gait. This is most consistent with weakness of which movement?
- Plantarflexion (pointing toes down)
- Knee extension
- Hip flexion
- Dorsiflexion (lifting the foot) (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Dorsiflexion (lifting the foot)
Foot drop from dorsiflexion weakness causes a slapping, high-stepping gait.
Question 91: Which autoimmune condition commonly causes a painful sensory neuropathy due to dorsal root ganglion inflammation?
- Celiac disease
- Psoriasis
- Type 1 diabetes
- Sjögren's syndrome (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Sjögren's syndrome
Sjögren's syndrome can cause a ganglionopathy by attacking dorsal root ganglia, producing sensory ataxia and pain.
Question 92: What conditions can cause neuropathy from chemotherapy?
- Patients receiving radiation therapy
- Cancer patients (Correct answer)
- Patients who have received radiation therapy
- Patients with diabetes
- Patients with autoimmune diseases
Correct answer: Cancer patients
Chemotherapy-induced peripheral neuropathy (CIPN) is a common and often debilitating side effect experienced by cancer patients undergoing certain chemotherapy treatments. These powerful drugs, designed to kill cancer cells, can also damage healthy nerve cells, leading to symptoms like pain, numbness, and tingling.
Question 93: A patient describes intermittent numbness that comes and goes early in disease before becoming constant. This progression suggests:
- A purely psychiatric cause
- Gradual, progressive nerve dysfunction (Correct answer)
- Acute spinal cord transection
- Immediate full recovery
Correct answer: Gradual, progressive nerve dysfunction
Many neuropathies progress from intermittent to constant symptoms as nerve damage advances.
Question 94: Amiodarone, an antiarrhythmic drug, is associated with which type of neuropathy?
- Mononeuritis multiplex
- Acute motor axonal neuropathy
- Pure autonomic neuropathy
- Demyelinating polyneuropathy resembling CIDP (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Demyelinating polyneuropathy resembling CIDP
Amiodarone can cause a demyelinating polyneuropathy similar to CIDP, as the drug and its metabolite accumulate in lysosomes of Schwann cells.
Question 95: Which vitamin deficiency is a well-recognized cause of peripheral neuropathy?
- Vitamin B12 (Correct answer)
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin A
Correct answer: Vitamin B12
Vitamin B12 deficiency damages the myelin sheath of nerves, causing peripheral neuropathy.
Question 96: Supine hypertension in autonomic failure patients treated with midodrine or fludrocortisone is best managed by which approach?
- Reducing fluid intake
- Discontinuing all treatment
- Elevating the head of the bed at night (Correct answer)
- Adding a diuretic to therapy
Correct answer: Elevating the head of the bed at night
Elevating the head of the bed 30-45 degrees at night counteracts supine hypertension by promoting fluid redistribution away from the chest.
Question 97: Which HbA1c target is recommended to slow the progression of diabetic neuropathy in non-elderly adults with type 1 diabetes?
- Below 8%
- Below 9%
- Below 7% (Correct answer)
- Below 6%
Correct answer: Below 7%
Maintaining HbA1c below 7% significantly reduces the risk and progression of diabetic peripheral neuropathy.
Question 98: A diabetic patient is unaware of a blister forming on the sole of the foot. This 'silent' injury risk is most directly due to:
- Muscle hypertrophy
- Loss of protective sensation (Correct answer)
- Improved reflexes
- Excessive sweating
Correct answer: Loss of protective sensation
Loss of protective sensation means injuries go unnoticed, increasing ulcer risk.
Question 99: Which organ is primarily responsible for producing advanced glycation end-products (AGEs) that contribute to diabetic neuropathy?
- Kidney
- Throughout the body in hyperglycemic states (Correct answer)
- Pancreas
- Liver
Correct answer: Throughout the body in hyperglycemic states
AGEs form throughout the body when chronic hyperglycemia causes glucose to bond non-enzymatically to proteins and lipids, damaging nerves.
Question 100: A patient notices they cannot feel the temperature of bathwater accurately with their feet. Which fiber type is most likely affected?
- Large myelinated motor fibers
- Proprioceptive fibers only
- Small unmyelinated/thinly myelinated fibers (Correct answer)
- Cranial nerve fibers
Correct answer: Small unmyelinated/thinly myelinated fibers
Small fibers carry temperature and pain sensation, so their damage impairs thermal perception.
Question 101: Which complication of autonomic neuropathy is a recognized cause of silent myocardial infarction in diabetic patients?
- Hypertensive crisis from sympathetic overactivity
- Orthostatic hypotension masking chest pain
- Cardiac denervation eliminating anginal pain perception (Correct answer)
- Resting tachycardia increasing oxygen demand
Correct answer: Cardiac denervation eliminating anginal pain perception
Cardiac autonomic neuropathy causes denervation of the heart, eliminating the pain signals that would normally signal a heart attack.
Question 102: Which complication of diabetic neuropathy is most directly responsible for lower limb amputations?
- Painful paresthesias
- Muscle weakness causing falls
- Autonomic dysfunction causing poor circulation only
- Loss of protective sensation leading to undetected foot ulcers (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Loss of protective sensation leading to undetected foot ulcers
Loss of protective sensation prevents patients from feeling injury, allowing foot ulcers to progress undetected to infection and gangrene.
Question 103: Compression stockings are recommended for autonomic neuropathy patients with orthostatic hypotension because they achieve which effect?
- Prevent paradoxical supine hypertension
- Stimulate peripheral alpha receptors
- Increase heart rate to compensate for low blood pressure
- Reduce venous pooling in the legs during standing (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Reduce venous pooling in the legs during standing
Compression stockings reduce venous pooling in the legs upon standing, increasing venous return and blood pressure in orthostatic hypotension.
Question 104: Which gastrointestinal manifestation is most common in diabetic autonomic neuropathy?
- Esophageal varices
- Ulcerative colitis
- Gastroparesis (Correct answer)
- Acute pancreatitis
Correct answer: Gastroparesis
Gastroparesis, delayed gastric emptying due to vagal nerve dysfunction, is the most common GI manifestation of diabetic autonomic neuropathy.
Question 105: In diabetic neuropathy, loss of the Achilles tendon reflex indicates damage to which nerve root level?
- L4-L5
- L1-L2
- S1-S2 (Correct answer)
- L2-L3
Correct answer: S1-S2
The Achilles reflex is mediated by the S1 nerve root via the tibial nerve, and its absence is an early sign of diabetic polyneuropathy.
Question 106: Anhidrosis (inability to sweat) from autonomic neuropathy most commonly begins in which body region?
- Face and scalp
- Hands and arms
- Feet and legs (ascending pattern) (Correct answer)
- Upper trunk
Correct answer: Feet and legs (ascending pattern)
Autonomic neuropathy-related anhidrosis typically begins in the distal lower extremities and ascends, mirroring the length-dependent nerve damage.
Question 107: What is the most common type of neuropathy?
- HIV neuropathy
- Diabetic peripheral neuropathy (Correct answer)
- Polyneuropathy
- Autonomic neuropathy
- Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
Correct answer: Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
Diabetic peripheral neuropathy is the most prevalent form of neuropathy, affecting a significant percentage of individuals with diabetes. High blood sugar levels over time can damage nerves throughout the body, most commonly in the legs and feet, leading to symptoms like numbness, tingling, and pain.
Question 108: Hypoglycemia unawareness in a diabetic patient with neuropathy occurs because autonomic damage blunts:
- The adrenergic warning symptoms of low blood sugar (Correct answer)
- All pain everywhere
- Insulin production entirely
- The need to eat
Correct answer: The adrenergic warning symptoms of low blood sugar
Autonomic neuropathy dulls the adrenergic warning signs (tremor, sweating, palpitations) of hypoglycemia.
Question 109: Which gastrointestinal motility drug is commonly used to treat diabetic gastroparesis?
- Loperamide
- Metoclopramide (Correct answer)
- Ondansetron
- Cholestyramine
Correct answer: Metoclopramide
Metoclopramide is the only FDA-approved medication for diabetic gastroparesis and works as a dopamine antagonist and prokinetic agent.
Question 110: More than 145 types of peripheral neuropathy have been identified, each with its own symptoms and prognosis.
- True (Correct answer)
- False
Correct answer: True
This statement is true. Peripheral neuropathy is not a single disease but a broad term encompassing many conditions resulting from damage to the peripheral nervous system. Due to the diverse causes (e.g., diabetes, autoimmune diseases, infections, toxins, genetics) and the various types of nerve fibers that can be affected, there are indeed numerous distinct forms of peripheral neuropathy, each with unique clinical presentations and outcomes.
Neuropathy Practice Test
Comprehensive assessment of neuropathy knowledge covering peripheral, diabetic, and autonomic neuropathy types, their signs and symptoms, pathophysiology, diagnosis, and clinical management — aligned with healthcare professional certification standards such as the CNRN exam.
Exam Rules
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