ASNT NDT Level II General — Questions and Answers

Question 1: A rounded indication in liquid penetrant testing is MOST likely associated with which type of discontinuity?

A cold shut or fold in a forging
A subsurface void or porosity cluster (Correct answer)
A fatigue crack on a shaft fillet
A lack-of-fusion defect in a weld

Correct answer: A subsurface void or porosity cluster

Rounded indications typically correspond to porosity or globular inclusions, where the defect opening is roughly equal in all directions.

Question 2: Which type of corrosion would produce a visually uniform, even thinning over a broad surface area rather than localized pitting?

Crevice corrosion
General (uniform) corrosion (Correct answer)
Galvanic corrosion
Stress corrosion cracking

Correct answer: General (uniform) corrosion

General corrosion attacks the surface evenly across a broad area, resulting in uniform thickness loss that can be measured by comparing to original dimensions.

Question 3: What is the key distinguishing characteristic of fluorescent magnetic particles compared to visible (dry) particles?

They work only with DC current
They fluoresce under ultraviolet light, providing higher contrast (Correct answer)
They require oil-based carriers exclusively
They are larger and heavier for better adhesion

Correct answer: They fluoresce under ultraviolet light, providing higher contrast

Fluorescent particles contain fluorescent dyes that glow brightly under UV-A (black) light, producing high contrast against the dark background and improving sensitivity.

Question 4: In visual testing, 'transillumination' technique involves:

Reflecting light off a mirror into a cavity
Using UV light to cause fluorescence
Lighting the surface at a 45-degree angle
Passing light through a translucent material to reveal internal variations (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Passing light through a translucent material to reveal internal variations

Transillumination (back-lighting) shines light through thin translucent materials so internal voids, inclusions, or density variations cast visible shadows.

Question 5: What is the typical UV-A wavelength range required for fluorescent magnetic particle inspection?

315–400 nm (Correct answer)
400–500 nm
200–280 nm
500–600 nm

Correct answer: 315–400 nm

UV-A light in the 315–400 nm range (with peak effectiveness near 365 nm) excites the fluorescent dyes in magnetic particles to produce visible indications.

Question 6: What is the significance of the second critical angle in ultrasonic testing?

The angle at which maximum mode conversion from longitudinal to surface waves occurs
The angle producing maximum penetration depth in the test material
The angle at which shear waves are completely absorbed at the interface
The incident angle beyond which total internal reflection occurs and no energy enters the second medium (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The incident angle beyond which total internal reflection occurs and no energy enters the second medium

The second critical angle is where the refracted shear wave reaches 90° and travels along the interface; beyond this angle, total internal reflection occurs and no bulk waves enter the material — only surface waves.

Question 7: A technician is inspecting an austenitic stainless steel weld. Which penetrant specification controls sulfur and halogen content to prevent material damage?

ASTM E165
AMS 2644 (Correct answer)
ASME Section V Article 6
ASTM E1417

Correct answer: AMS 2644

AMS 2644 specifies limits on sulfur and halogen content in penetrant materials used on nickel alloys and austenitic stainless steels to prevent stress corrosion cracking.

Question 8: Which of the following correctly states the concept of 'stochastic' radiation effects?

Effects whose severity increases with dose but probability does not
Effects whose probability increases with dose but severity does not (Correct answer)
Effects that are immediate and predictable for any dose level
Effects that occur only above a specific threshold dose

Correct answer: Effects whose probability increases with dose but severity does not

Stochastic effects like cancer have a probability proportional to dose but the severity (e.g., tumor type) is independent of how much dose caused it.

Question 9: A film badge (OSL dosimeter) is worn during radiographic testing primarily to:

Measure and record cumulative radiation exposure (Correct answer)
Warn the wearer of high radiation in real time
Shield sensitive body parts from scatter radiation
Calibrate the radiation source output

Correct answer: Measure and record cumulative radiation exposure

Film badges and OSL dosimeters are passive, legal-record dosimeters that accumulate and record total dose for regulatory compliance.

Question 10: What does the term 'depth of field' mean in the context of visual testing optics?

The field of view angle of a lens
The minimum defect size detectable
The range of distances over which objects appear acceptably sharp (Correct answer)
The maximum magnification achievable

Correct answer: The range of distances over which objects appear acceptably sharp

Depth of field is the range of distances within which objects remain in acceptable focus without readjusting the optic.

Question 11: Which discontinuity type is penetrant testing LEAST effective at detecting?

Very wide open discontinuities (Correct answer)
Forging cracks
Broad shallow laps
Tight fatigue cracks

Correct answer: Very wide open discontinuities

Very wide open discontinuities may not retain enough penetrant through the cleaning step to produce a detectable indication.

Question 12: A probe operating at 500 kHz detects a surface crack in titanium. If the frequency is reduced to 125 kHz, the standard depth of penetration will:

Remain the same
Halve
Double (Correct answer)
Quadruple

Correct answer: Double

Standard depth of penetration is proportional to 1/√f, so reducing frequency by a factor of 4 (500 to 125 kHz) doubles the penetration depth.

Question 13: What is the purpose of the 'residual method' in magnetic particle testing?

Magnetizing the part while applying particles
Demagnetizing residual fields before inspection
Checking residual particle adhesion after testing
Applying particles after the magnetizing current is turned off (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Applying particles after the magnetizing current is turned off

The residual method applies particles to a part after magnetization is complete, relying on the retained residual magnetic field to hold particles at discontinuity locations.

Question 14: In the context of Nondestructive Testing, what is the fundamental distinction between a "discontinuity" and a "defect"?

A "discontinuity" refers to metallurgical anomalies, while a "defect" refers to mechanical damage.
A "discontinuity" is an interruption in the material, while a "defect" is a discontinuity that does not meet specified acceptance criteria. (Correct answer)
A "defect" is a discontinuity that has been proven to be three-dimensional.
A discontinuity is always subsurface, while a defect is always surface-breaking.

Correct answer: A "discontinuity" is an interruption in the material, while a "defect" is a discontinuity that does not meet specified acceptance criteria.

A discontinuity is any interruption in the normal physical structure of a material. It only becomes a defect when an evaluation determines that it compromises the part's integrity or fails to meet the acceptance criteria outlined in the relevant code, standard, or specification.

Question 15: A 'lost or stolen' radioactive source must be reported to the NRC within:

30 days in the annual report only
4 hours of discovery (Correct answer)
24 hours of discovery
72 hours of discovery

Correct answer: 4 hours of discovery

A lost or stolen licensed radioactive material must be reported immediately (within 4 hours) to the NRC Operations Center and local authorities.

Question 16: During UT inspection, multiple small signals appear scattered throughout the weld volume with low amplitude. The most likely cause is:

Lack of sidewall fusion
Distributed porosity (Correct answer)
Centerline hot crack
Undercut

Correct answer: Distributed porosity

Scattered low-amplitude signals throughout the volume are characteristic of distributed porosity, where each pore produces a small reflection.

Question 17: When using prod magnetization, what is the recommended current range per inch of prod spacing according to ASTM E1444?

200–300 amperes per inch
100–125 amperes per inch (Correct answer)
50–100 amperes per inch
150–200 amperes per inch

Correct answer: 100–125 amperes per inch

ASTM E1444 specifies 100–125 amperes per inch of prod spacing as the standard current range for prod magnetization of most materials.

Question 18: What is the acoustic impedance of a material defined as?

The product of material density and ultrasonic wave velocity (Correct answer)
The resistance of a material to crack propagation
The attenuation coefficient divided by frequency
The ratio of stress to strain in the material

Correct answer: The product of material density and ultrasonic wave velocity

Acoustic impedance (Z) equals material density (ρ) multiplied by the ultrasonic wave velocity (v), expressed as Z = ρv.

Question 19: Which post-cleaning method is MOST effective for removing penetrant materials from a part after inspection is complete?

Dry compressed air blow-off
Solvent soak followed by vapor degreasing (Correct answer)
Cold water rinse at low pressure
Dry brushing only

Correct answer: Solvent soak followed by vapor degreasing

Solvent soaking followed by vapor degreasing thoroughly dissolves and removes penetrant, developer, and emulsifier residues from the part surface and discontinuities.

Question 20: A technician must verify the integrity of a hermetically sealed electronic component for a deep-space satellite, where even a minuscule leak is unacceptable. Which of the following leak testing methods offers the highest sensitivity for this application?

Halogen diode detector testing
Bubble emission testing
Helium mass spectrometer testing (Correct answer)
Absolute pressure leak testing

Correct answer: Helium mass spectrometer testing

Helium mass spectrometer testing is the most sensitive practical leak detection method available, capable of detecting extremely small leaks (down to 10-12 mbar·l/s). This level of sensitivity is critical for high-reliability applications like space hardware where leakage cannot be tolerated.

Question 21: What color is typically used on radiographic exclusion zone barrier ropes or tape to signal a radiation hazard?

Yellow and magenta (or purple) (Correct answer)
Orange and white
Blue and white
Green and black

Correct answer: Yellow and magenta (or purple)

Yellow and magenta (or purple) are the internationally recognized colors for radiation warning signs and barriers per ANSI/ISO standards.

Question 22: Under ASNT SNT-TC-1A, which document must an employer create to define their NDT personnel qualification requirements?

Certification Log
Procedure Manual
Written Practice (Correct answer)
Training Record

Correct answer: Written Practice

SNT-TC-1A requires each employer to establish a Written Practice that specifies qualification and certification requirements for NDT personnel.

Question 23: What is the primary purpose of couplant in contact ultrasonic testing?

To eliminate the air gap and improve acoustic energy transfer between transducer and part (Correct answer)
To increase the frequency of the transducer
To magnetize the test surface for better defect detection
To slow down the ultrasonic wave for easier measurement

Correct answer: To eliminate the air gap and improve acoustic energy transfer between transducer and part

Couplant fills the microscopic air gap between the transducer and test surface, since air has very low acoustic impedance and would cause nearly total reflection of ultrasonic energy.

Question 24: Which surface condition would MOST adversely affect the quality of a liquid penetrant test?

Slight surface roughness
Slight oxidation on non-critical areas
A thin oil film covering the part (Correct answer)
Metallic color variation

Correct answer: A thin oil film covering the part

An oil film blocks penetrant from entering discontinuities, making pre-cleaning the most critical preparatory step.

Question 25: When evaluating magnetic particle indications, which factor most influences the decision to accept or reject a part?

The type of magnetization equipment used
The color of the particles used
The experience of the inspector alone
The applicable code, standard, or acceptance criteria (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The applicable code, standard, or acceptance criteria

Acceptance or rejection must be based on the applicable code, standard, or engineering specification that defines allowable indication sizes and types for the specific application.

Question 26: How often should one measure the strength of UV light?

When a new bulb is installed
At startup of inspection cycle
All of the above (Correct answer)
Every 8 hours

Correct answer: All of the above

The strength of UV light is crucial for effective fluorescent penetrant inspection (FPI) and must be regularly monitored. It should be measured at the start of an inspection cycle to ensure compliance, whenever a new bulb is installed to confirm proper function, and every 8 hours during continuous use to account for bulb degradation. Regular checks ensure consistent and reliable inspection results.

Question 27: In phased array ultrasonic testing (PAUT), what enables steering of the beam without physically moving the probe?

Electronic time delays applied to individual array elements (Correct answer)
Variable frequency modulation of the pulser
Magnetic field adjustments around the transducer
Mechanical gimbals inside the probe housing

Correct answer: Electronic time delays applied to individual array elements

PAUT steers and focuses the beam by applying precisely calculated electronic time delays to fire individual array elements in a controlled sequence.

Question 28: Acoustic emission testing is particularly well-suited for in-service inspection of pressure vessels because:

It monitors the entire structure simultaneously while the vessel is under load (Correct answer)
It can identify the chemical composition of any corrosion products present
It can detect flaws regardless of orientation without removing insulation
It does not require any couplant or surface preparation

Correct answer: It monitors the entire structure simultaneously while the vessel is under load

AE testing monitors the entire structure from a relatively small number of sensors while the vessel is pressurized, detecting active flaws that emit energy under operational stress without requiring full surface access.

Question 29: After completing a radiographic exposure, a radiographer must perform a 'post-exposure survey' to verify:

The exclusion zone barriers have been removed
The film has been properly developed and fixed
The source has returned to its fully shielded position in the camera (Correct answer)
The client's representative has signed the exposure log

Correct answer: The source has returned to its fully shielded position in the camera

A post-exposure survey with a calibrated radiation survey meter confirms the source is fully retracted and dose rates have returned to background levels.

Question 30: What is the fundamental principle behind acoustic emission (AE) testing?

External ultrasonic pulses are transmitted into the material and reflections are measured
Materials release transient elastic waves when undergoing deformation or damage (Correct answer)
Magnetic fields align with discontinuities in ferromagnetic materials
Eddy currents induced in the material reveal subsurface flaws

Correct answer: Materials release transient elastic waves when undergoing deformation or damage

AE testing detects transient elastic stress waves that are spontaneously emitted when a material undergoes deformation, cracking, or other damage mechanisms.

Question 31: Which of the following is a primary advantage of using a videoscope over a traditional fiberscope for remote visual inspection?

Fiberscopes are more durable and less prone to damage.
Videoscopes produce a higher resolution digital image that can be easily recorded and stored. (Correct answer)
Videoscopes are typically more flexible and have a smaller diameter.
Videoscopes do not require a light source.

Correct answer: Videoscopes produce a higher resolution digital image that can be easily recorded and stored.

A key advantage of a videoscope is that it uses a miniature camera at the tip to capture a direct digital image, resulting in higher resolution and clarity. This digital format allows for easy recording, storage, and sharing of the inspection data. Fiberscopes transmit images through a bundle of optical fibers, which can result in lower resolution and are prone to damage (appearing as black dots).

Question 32: An eddy current signal from a through-wall hole in a tube will appear on the impedance plane with:

Very small amplitude because there is no material to interact with
The same phase angle as a shallow surface pit
Large amplitude and a phase angle that places it well below the lift-off line (Correct answer)
Maximum amplitude and a phase angle near 0°

Correct answer: Large amplitude and a phase angle that places it well below the lift-off line

A through-wall hole represents 100% wall loss and produces the largest signal with a phase angle characteristic of very deep or complete penetration, distinct from surface indications.

Question 33: Which of the following is an acceptable reason to revoke an NDT technician's certification?

Moving to a different NDT method
Changing employers
Requesting recertification early
Falsification of records or demonstrated incompetence (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Falsification of records or demonstrated incompetence

Certifications may be revoked for cause, including falsification of records, misrepresentation, or demonstrated inability to perform required tasks competently.

Question 34: An ASME code requires that any linear indication greater than 3/16 inch in a weld be rejected. A PT indication measures 3/16 inch exactly. The correct disposition is:

Grind and re-inspect before deciding
Accept — it does not exceed the limit (Correct answer)
Reject only if it is surface-breaking
Reject — it equals the maximum allowable

Correct answer: Accept — it does not exceed the limit

The code specifies 'greater than' 3/16 inch, so an indication exactly at 3/16 inch is acceptable under that criterion.

Question 35: In ASNT SNT-TC-1A, which party is ultimately responsible for the certification of NDT personnel?

The employer (Correct answer)
The training school or college
The government regulatory agency
ASNT headquarters

Correct answer: The employer

Under SNT-TC-1A, the employer bears ultimate responsibility for certifying their NDT personnel and maintaining associated records.

Question 36: What is the primary biological target of ionizing radiation that leads to long-term cancer risk?

Cytoplasmic ribosomes
DNA in the cell nucleus (Correct answer)
Mitochondrial proteins
Cell membrane lipids

Correct answer: DNA in the cell nucleus

Ionizing radiation's primary long-term risk comes from DNA damage in the cell nucleus, which can cause mutations leading to cancer.

Question 37: Increasing the temperature will:

Raise the speed of evaporation of penetrants (Correct answer)
Increase the developer time
Require the need of a post emulsified penetrant
Reduce the emulsifier time

Correct answer: Raise the speed of evaporation of penetrants

Increasing the temperature of either the penetrant or the part being inspected will accelerate the evaporation rate of the penetrant's solvent. This can cause the penetrant to dry out too quickly, potentially reducing its ability to fully enter and dwell within discontinuities. Proper temperature control is therefore crucial for consistent and effective liquid penetrant inspection.

Question 38: What is the primary purpose of a couplant in ultrasonic testing?

To amplify the received signal on the display
To harden the surface of the material being tested
To increase the frequency of the sound wave
To eliminate the air gap between the transducer and test material (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To eliminate the air gap between the transducer and test material

Couplants fill the air gap between the transducer and material surface, enabling efficient transfer of ultrasonic energy since air is a poor acoustic conductor.

Question 39: The term for the combined impact of absorption and dispersion is:

Attenuation (Correct answer)
Propagation
Impedance
Shear factor

Correct answer: Attenuation

Attenuation is the term used to describe the decrease in the intensity of a wave as it propagates through a medium. This phenomenon is a combined result of absorption, where the material converts wave energy into other forms like heat, and dispersion (or scattering), where the wave energy is redirected in various directions. Therefore, attenuation directly represents the overall loss of wave energy due to these two effects.

Question 40: What phenomenon causes eddy current signals from a defect to appear at DIFFERENT phase angles depending on whether the crack is on the near-surface or far-surface of the test piece?

Reflection of electromagnetic waves at the far surface
The additional phase lag accumulated as eddy currents travel through material depth (Correct answer)
Frequency modulation caused by the crack geometry
Hysteresis in the coil core material

Correct answer: The additional phase lag accumulated as eddy currents travel through material depth

Each additional skin depth of material the eddy current travels through introduces approximately 1 radian of phase lag, so far-surface defects produce signals at much larger phase angles.

Question 41: Which of the following is a key safety advantage of using an X-ray generator compared to a gamma-ray source for industrial radiography?

X-ray equipment is always more portable and requires no power source.
The radiation from an X-ray tube can be turned off completely. (Correct answer)
X-ray sources provide better penetration for very thick steel sections.
Gamma-ray sources decay over time, making them less predictable.

Correct answer: The radiation from an X-ray tube can be turned off completely.

A primary safety advantage of X-ray systems is that they only produce radiation when electrically powered on. In contrast, a gamma-ray source, like Iridium-192 or Cobalt-60, emits radiation continuously and cannot be turned off, posing a constant potential hazard that requires secure shielding at all times.

Question 42: Under ASNT SNT-TC-1A, the minimum hours of on-the-job training for a VT Level II candidate with no prior Level I experience is typically:

40 hours
400 hours
800 hours
200 hours (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 200 hours

SNT-TC-1A recommends 200 hours minimum on-the-job training for VT Level II certification when the candidate has not previously held Level I status.

Question 43: What is the minimum vision requirement for NDT personnel performing visual testing, per ASNT guidelines?

20/30 far vision on Snellen chart
No vision standard is required
20/20 uncorrected vision
20/40 near vision with or without correction on Jaeger J-1 (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 20/40 near vision with or without correction on Jaeger J-1

NDT personnel must demonstrate near vision acuity of at least Jaeger J-1 at 12 inches (30 cm) with or without correction.

Question 44: During heat exchanger tube inspection with eddy currents, a signal at the tube sheet location is noted. The technician should:

Recalibrate using the tube sheet signal as the 100% reference
Recognize it as a geometric/material discontinuity and use multifrequency mixing to suppress it (Correct answer)
Flag it immediately as a defect requiring tube plugging
Increase frequency until the signal disappears

Correct answer: Recognize it as a geometric/material discontinuity and use multifrequency mixing to suppress it

Tube sheets cause consistent geometric signals that are not defects; multifrequency mixing suppresses these known interferences so true defects can be identified.

Question 45: When using a flexible video borescope, image distortion at the edges of the field of view is typically caused by:

Wide-angle lens geometric distortion (Correct answer)
Moisture inside the insertion tube
Camera sensor overheating
Insufficient lighting power

Correct answer: Wide-angle lens geometric distortion

Wide-angle lenses used in borescopes introduce barrel or pincushion distortion, especially at field edges, which can affect dimensional assessments.

Question 46: A technician is tasked with performing a magnetic particle inspection on a critical aerospace component made of a high-strength steel alloy. The procedure specifies using the residual method. This implies that the material must have:

Low permeability and low retentivity
High permeability and low retentivity
Low permeability and high retentivity
High permeability and high retentivity (Correct answer)

Correct answer: High permeability and high retentivity

The residual method relies on the magnetism that remains in the part after the magnetizing force is removed. For this to be effective, the material must be easily magnetized (high permeability) and must retain a strong magnetic field (high retentivity) to create sufficient flux leakage at any discontinuities.

Question 47: A radiographer is setting up an exposure. Doubling the distance from the source reduces the dose rate by approximately:

The dose rate is unchanged
50% of the original
25% of the original (Correct answer)
75% of the original

Correct answer: 25% of the original

Per the inverse square law, doubling the distance reduces dose rate to one-quarter (25%) of the original value.

Question 48: On an impedance plane display, where does a large subsurface void typically appear relative to a surface crack signal?

Closer to the inductive reactance axis with less resistive component
At the same location, indistinguishable from surface cracks
Further along the resistive axis with greater phase lag (Correct answer)
Always below the operating point regardless of frequency

Correct answer: Further along the resistive axis with greater phase lag

Subsurface defects show greater phase lag than surface defects because the eddy currents travel deeper before interacting with the discontinuity.

Question 49: ASTM E650 provides guidelines for:

Magnetic particle testing of ferromagnetic castings
Calibration of ultrasonic reference blocks
Radiographic film interpretation for weld discontinuities
Mounting and use of piezoelectric acoustic emission sensors (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Mounting and use of piezoelectric acoustic emission sensors

ASTM E650 is the standard guide for mounting piezoelectric acoustic emission sensors, covering couplant selection, attachment methods, and verification of sensor installation.

Question 50: When using alternating current (AC) for magnetic particle testing, what is the primary limitation compared to direct current (DC)?

AC produces weaker fields than DC at all depths
AC requires special particles not used with DC
AC is limited to surface and near-surface detection due to the skin effect (Correct answer)
AC cannot magnetize ferromagnetic materials

Correct answer: AC is limited to surface and near-surface detection due to the skin effect

The skin effect causes AC to concentrate at the surface of a conductor, limiting its penetrating depth and making it less effective for detecting subsurface discontinuities compared to DC or HWDC.

ASNT NDT Level II General

The ASNT NDT Level II General examination certifies competency in nondestructive testing fundamentals, principles, and theory across multiple NDT methods including ultrasonic, radiographic, magnetic particle, liquid penetrant, visual, and eddy current testing.

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

To Pass

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