ASNT NDT Level II General — Questions and Answers

Question 1: What is the term for the condition where magnetic particle indications form at grain boundaries due to permeability differences, not actual defects?

Magnetic writing
Seam indication
Non-relevant grain boundary indication (Correct answer)
Banding

Correct answer: Non-relevant grain boundary indication

Non-relevant grain boundary indications occur when magnetic particles accumulate along grain boundaries due to permeability differences, not because of actual material discontinuities.

Question 2: What is the characteristic impedance plane trace for a surface-breaking crack as probe scan speed increases?

The signal disappears above a critical scan speed
The signal shape remains the same but rotates clockwise
The signal may become distorted due to filtering effects at high speeds (Correct answer)
The signal amplitude decreases proportionally to speed

Correct answer: The signal may become distorted due to filtering effects at high speeds

At high scan speeds, the instrument's filter bandwidth may not keep up with rapid signal changes, causing waveform distortion and potentially missing narrow cracks.

Question 3: Water soluble developers are made up of the following chemical compounds:

Saturated in water and experience a chemical shift allowing it to fluoresce on the parts surface
Not to be used on galvanized parts
Dissolved in water (Correct answer)
Only used on rough porous surfaces

Correct answer: Dissolved in water

Water-soluble developers are specifically formulated to dissolve completely in water, forming a uniform solution. When this solution is applied to a part, the water evaporates, leaving a thin, even layer of developer particles on the surface. These particles then effectively draw penetrant from any discontinuities, making them visible.

Question 4: What does ALARA stand for in radiographic testing safety?

Approved Levels of Allowable Radiation Activity
As Low As Reasonably Achievable (Correct answer)
Authorized Limits for Acceptable Radiation Areas
Always Limit All Radiation Amounts

Correct answer: As Low As Reasonably Achievable

ALARA is the guiding principle that radiation exposure should be kept as low as reasonably achievable through time, distance, and shielding.

Question 5: Which discontinuity type is inherent to the raw material and typically aligned parallel to the material's working direction?

Undercut
Lack of fusion
Seams and laps (Correct answer)
Porosity

Correct answer: Seams and laps

Seams and laps are inherent material discontinuities originating during manufacturing (rolling, forging) that align parallel to the direction of metal working.

Question 6: A visual inspector notices a crack that appears to run parallel to the direction of the applied stress on a pressure vessel. This orientation is:

Always acceptable if surface-only
Irrelevant to fitness-for-service evaluation
Less critical than a transverse crack in most cases (Correct answer)
More critical than a transverse crack

Correct answer: Less critical than a transverse crack in most cases

Cracks parallel to the primary stress direction are generally less critical because the stress field does not tend to open them; transverse cracks are more dangerous.

Question 7: Which organization issues the EN ISO 9712 standard used internationally for NDT personnel qualification?

IAEA
AWS
ASNT
ISO/CEN (Correct answer)

Correct answer: ISO/CEN

EN ISO 9712 is published jointly by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) and the European Committee for Standardization (CEN).

Question 8: What is the purpose of the pre-cleaning step before applying penetrant?

To roughen the surface for better penetrant adhesion
To heat the part for improved penetrant flow
To apply a thin primer coat
To remove contaminants that could block discontinuity openings or cause false indications (Correct answer)

Correct answer: To remove contaminants that could block discontinuity openings or cause false indications

Pre-cleaning removes oils, paint, rust, and other contaminants that could seal discontinuity openings and prevent penetrant entry or cause false indications.

Question 9: What is the primary advantage of using a halogen leak detector over a bubble test?

It provides quantitative leak rate measurement and higher sensitivity (Correct answer)
It eliminates the need for pressurizing the test part
It is less expensive and requires no training
It can only detect leaks in liquid systems

Correct answer: It provides quantitative leak rate measurement and higher sensitivity

Halogen detectors offer much higher sensitivity than bubble tests and can provide quantitative leak rate data.

Question 10: After completing a radiographic exposure, a radiographer must perform a 'post-exposure survey' to verify:

The exclusion zone barriers have been removed
The client's representative has signed the exposure log
The source has returned to its fully shielded position in the camera (Correct answer)
The film has been properly developed and fixed

Correct answer: The source has returned to its fully shielded position in the camera

A post-exposure survey with a calibrated radiation survey meter confirms the source is fully retracted and dose rates have returned to background levels.

Question 11: What is the purpose of the pie-shaped (Berthold) gauge used in magnetic particle testing?

Verifying adequate field strength and direction at the part surface (Correct answer)
Measuring the distance between prods
Checking the particle bath concentration
Measuring the UV-A light intensity at the inspection surface

Correct answer: Verifying adequate field strength and direction at the part surface

The pie-shaped (Berthold) gauge, a circular shim with radiating slots, is placed on the part to verify that the applied magnetic field is sufficient and properly oriented to detect discontinuities.

Question 12: Which type of ultrasonic wave motion involves particles oscillating perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation?

Lamb wave
Shear (transverse) wave (Correct answer)
Surface (Rayleigh) wave
Longitudinal (compression) wave

Correct answer: Shear (transverse) wave

Shear waves, also called transverse waves, have particle motion perpendicular to the direction of wave travel, unlike longitudinal waves where motion is parallel.

Question 13: What is the typical UV-A wavelength range required for fluorescent magnetic particle inspection?

200–280 nm
315–400 nm (Correct answer)
400–500 nm
500–600 nm

Correct answer: 315–400 nm

UV-A light in the 315–400 nm range (with peak effectiveness near 365 nm) excites the fluorescent dyes in magnetic particles to produce visible indications.

Question 14: The V1 (IIW) calibration block is primarily used to:

Establish the DAC curve for a specific material and flaw geometry
Determine the acoustic impedance of an unknown material
Verify the couplant viscosity is appropriate for the test temperature
Calibrate the time base (range) and sensitivity of angle-beam and straight-beam probes (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Calibrate the time base (range) and sensitivity of angle-beam and straight-beam probes

The IIW block provides reference features (25mm radius, 50mm radius, 1.5mm side-drilled hole) used to set instrument sweep range and sensitivity for both contact and angle-beam techniques.

Question 15: Under OSHA 1910.269, NDT of electrical utility equipment requires inspectors to be qualified under which specific standard?

IEEE Std 62
ANSI/ASNT CP-189
OSHA 29 CFR 1910.269 employer qualification (Correct answer)
ASNT SNT-TC-1A

Correct answer: OSHA 29 CFR 1910.269 employer qualification

OSHA 1910.269 requires employer-qualified personnel for electrical utility work rather than mandating a specific NDT certification standard.

Question 16: What is the primary function of a preamplifier in an acoustic emission testing system?

To digitize the AE waveform at the point of detection
To amplify the small AE sensor signal before transmission to the main amplifier (Correct answer)
To provide electrical isolation between the sensor and the data acquisition unit
To filter out high-frequency noise above 1 MHz

Correct answer: To amplify the small AE sensor signal before transmission to the main amplifier

The preamplifier amplifies the low-voltage AE signal (typically microvolts to millivolts) close to the sensor to improve the signal-to-noise ratio before the signal travels through cables to the main system.

Question 17: The Felicity Ratio is defined as the ratio of:

The frequency of AE signals to the sampling rate of the digitizer
The AE signal amplitude at failure to the amplitude at threshold
The load at which AE reappears during reloading to the previous maximum load (Correct answer)
The number of AE hits to the number of AE events

Correct answer: The load at which AE reappears during reloading to the previous maximum load

The Felicity Ratio = (load at which AE reappears) / (previous maximum load); a ratio less than 1.0 indicates the Felicity Effect and suggests significant damage in the structure.

Question 18: Dry magnetic particles are most commonly used in which application?

Underwater inspection of submerged structures
Field inspection of welds and castings at elevated temperatures (Correct answer)
Detection of very fine subsurface cracks
High-volume automated production line inspection

Correct answer: Field inspection of welds and castings at elevated temperatures

Dry particles are preferred for field inspection of rough-surface welds and castings, especially at elevated temperatures where wet bath methods are impractical.

Question 19: On an impedance plane display, where does a large subsurface void typically appear relative to a surface crack signal?

Further along the resistive axis with greater phase lag (Correct answer)
At the same location, indistinguishable from surface cracks
Always below the operating point regardless of frequency
Closer to the inductive reactance axis with less resistive component

Correct answer: Further along the resistive axis with greater phase lag

Subsurface defects show greater phase lag than surface defects because the eddy currents travel deeper before interacting with the discontinuity.

Question 20: Which condition would most likely cause a false indication in magnetic particle testing?

A tight fatigue crack on the surface
A seam running longitudinally in a bar
A cold shut in a casting
Magnetic writing from contact with another magnetized part (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Magnetic writing from contact with another magnetized part

Magnetic writing occurs when a magnetized tool or part contacts the test surface, creating localized field distortions that attract particles and produce false indications unrelated to actual discontinuities.

Question 21: Which type of developer is prohibited for use on parts with blind holes or keyways?

Non-aqueous wet developer
All developer types are equally suitable
Dry powder developer
Aqueous developer (wet) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Aqueous developer (wet)

Aqueous (wet) developers can become trapped in blind holes, making complete removal after inspection very difficult and potentially leaving harmful residues.

Question 22: Which of the following material properties has the MOST significant influence on the magnitude and distribution of induced eddy currents?

Thermal Expansion Coefficient
Ductility
Electrical Conductivity (Correct answer)
Tensile Strength

Correct answer: Electrical Conductivity

Eddy current testing is fundamentally an electromagnetic method. The ease with which eddy currents can be induced and flow within a material is primarily determined by the material's ability to conduct electricity, i.e., its electrical conductivity. Variations in conductivity directly alter the impedance of the test coil.

Question 23: Which of the following best describes a 'method' in NDT?

A type of calibration block
A specific brand of NDT equipment
The written procedure for a specific inspection
A physical principle used to detect discontinuities, such as ultrasonics or radiography (Correct answer)

Correct answer: A physical principle used to detect discontinuities, such as ultrasonics or radiography

In NDT, a method refers to the physical principle employed, such as ultrasonic testing (UT), radiographic testing (RT), or magnetic particle testing (MT).

Question 24: A pocket dosimeter reads zero at the start of a shift but reads 2 mSv at the end, while the film badge shows only 0.1 mSv. The radiographer should:

Report both readings and investigate the discrepancy (Correct answer)
Discard both and estimate dose from source records
Trust the pocket dosimeter and report 2 mSv
Trust only the film badge since it is the legal record

Correct answer: Report both readings and investigate the discrepancy

Discrepancies between dosimeters must be investigated and reported to the RSO, as they may indicate dosimeter malfunction or an unreported exposure.

Question 25: In ultrasonic testing, what does 'beam spread' refer to?

The width of the transducer crystal
The range of frequencies emitted by the transducer
The divergence of the ultrasonic beam as it travels through a material (Correct answer)
The attenuation rate of the signal over distance

Correct answer: The divergence of the ultrasonic beam as it travels through a material

Beam spread is the natural divergence of an ultrasonic beam as it travels away from the transducer, which affects lateral resolution and coverage area.

Question 26: In eddy current testing, a discontinuity signal whose phase angle is near 0° on the impedance plane most likely indicates:

A surface crack
Lift-off change (Correct answer)
Conductivity variation
A deep subsurface void

Correct answer: Lift-off change

Lift-off signals appear near 0° phase on the impedance plane, which is why lift-off direction is established first to separate it from defect signals.

Question 27: Which condition is a visual inspector REQUIRED to document even if it does not exceed the accept/reject criteria?

Environmental conditions that were ideal
Only defects that exceed the reject threshold
Normal surface conditions with no anomalies
All observations that might affect fitness for service, per the applicable code (Correct answer)

Correct answer: All observations that might affect fitness for service, per the applicable code

Many codes require that all relevant indications, even those within acceptance limits, be recorded for fitness-for-service trending and future comparison.

Question 28: What is the primary advantage of using a video borescope over a traditional fiberscope for remote visual inspection?

Greater insertion tube flexibility
No need for external lighting
Lower cost
No image pixelation and higher resolution digital imaging (Correct answer)

Correct answer: No image pixelation and higher resolution digital imaging

Video borescopes use a CCD/CMOS sensor at the tip rather than fiber bundles, eliminating the honeycomb pixelation and providing significantly higher image resolution.

Question 29: What does a Distance-Amplitude Correction (DAC) curve compensate for in ultrasonic testing?

The frequency shift caused by the Doppler effect during scanning
Differences in material grain structure between test specimens
Variations in couplant thickness across the test surface
The decrease in signal amplitude from identical reflectors at increasing depths due to beam spread and attenuation (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The decrease in signal amplitude from identical reflectors at increasing depths due to beam spread and attenuation

DAC curves account for the natural decrease in echo amplitude from same-size reflectors as depth increases, establishing an amplitude reference that varies with distance.

Question 30: In ultrasonic testing, which wave mode has particle motion perpendicular to the direction of wave propagation and cannot travel through liquids or gases?

Rayleigh waves
Longitudinal waves
Shear waves (Correct answer)
Lamb waves

Correct answer: Shear waves

Shear waves, also known as transverse waves, are characterized by particle motion that is perpendicular (transverse) to the direction the wave is traveling. Because they rely on the elastic properties of a solid to support this type of motion, they cannot be sustained in liquids or gases, which lack significant shear strength.

Question 31: In eddy current testing, what does a 'lift-off' effect refer to?

Removing the coil from the magnetizing circuit
The change in signal caused by varying probe-to-surface distance (Correct answer)
The effect of high-frequency signals bouncing off defects
The probe leaving the test surface accidentally

Correct answer: The change in signal caused by varying probe-to-surface distance

Lift-off is the change in eddy current signal that occurs when the distance between the probe coil and the test surface varies, causing signal noise.

Question 32: In pulse-echo ultrasonic testing, what does the time-of-flight measurement directly indicate?

The size of the detected discontinuity
The amplitude of the reflected signal
The distance from the transducer to the reflector (Correct answer)
The attenuation coefficient of the material

Correct answer: The distance from the transducer to the reflector

Time-of-flight is the time for the pulse to travel to the reflector and return; knowing wave velocity allows calculation of distance to the reflector.

Question 33: What phenomenon is exploited when using Lamb waves (plate waves) in ultrasonic testing?

Specular reflection from the top surface of thin plates
Resonance of the plate at its natural frequency
Guided wave propagation through the entire thickness of thin plate structures (Correct answer)
Diffraction from through-thickness cracks only

Correct answer: Guided wave propagation through the entire thickness of thin plate structures

Lamb waves are guided waves that propagate through the full thickness of thin plates or shells, making them effective for long-range screening of large plate areas from a single probe position.

Question 34: At what temperature range is standard liquid penetrant testing considered valid per ASTM E165?

40°F to 110°F (4°C to 43°C)
60°F to 150°F (16°C to 66°C)
50°F to 125°F (10°C to 52°C) (Correct answer)
32°F to 100°F (0°C to 38°C)

Correct answer: 50°F to 125°F (10°C to 52°C)

ASTM E165 specifies the standard temperature range for PT as 50°F to 125°F (10°C to 52°C) without special qualification.

Question 35: After applying a water-washable penetrant, what is the danger of over-washing the part?

Excess moisture accelerates corrosion during testing
The part will become magnetized
Penetrant trapped in discontinuities may be removed, causing false-negative indications (Correct answer)
The developer will not adhere to the surface

Correct answer: Penetrant trapped in discontinuities may be removed, causing false-negative indications

Over-washing can remove penetrant from shallow or wide-open discontinuities, causing relevant indications to be missed.

Question 36: What is the correct action when a leak is found in a pressure system during a hydrostatic test?

Depressurize the system completely before any repair is attempted (Correct answer)
Apply sealant immediately under pressure to stop the leak
Weld the leak while the system remains pressurized to save time
Reduce pressure to half and continue the test while marking the leak location

Correct answer: Depressurize the system completely before any repair is attempted

Safety requires full depressurization before any repair work, as working on pressurized systems poses severe injury risk.

Question 37: Which shielding material is most effective per unit thickness for gamma radiation from Ir-192?

Lead (Correct answer)
Concrete
Aluminum
Polyethylene

Correct answer: Lead

Lead's high atomic number and density make it the most effective per-unit-thickness shield against gamma radiation from industrial sources like Ir-192.

Question 38: What is the primary advantage of multidirectional magnetization in magnetic particle testing?

Stronger magnetic field than single-direction methods
Better particle adhesion on rough surfaces
Detection of discontinuities in multiple orientations in one operation (Correct answer)
Elimination of the need for demagnetization

Correct answer: Detection of discontinuities in multiple orientations in one operation

Multidirectional magnetization sequences through different field directions rapidly, allowing detection of variously oriented discontinuities without repositioning the part.

Question 39: Which organization publishes ANSI/ASNT CP-189, the standard for qualification and certification of NDT personnel?

American Welding Society (AWS)
American Society for Nondestructive Testing (ASNT) (Correct answer)
American National Standards Institute (ANSI) alone
ASME International

Correct answer: American Society for Nondestructive Testing (ASNT)

CP-189 is published by ASNT and provides a third-party, consensus-based standard for NDT personnel certification.

Question 40: Why must a penetrant inspector allow their eyes to adapt to darkness before evaluating fluorescent indications?

To reduce the inspector's reaction time during evaluation
To maximize eye sensitivity to low-level fluorescent light emitted by indications (Correct answer)
To avoid UV-A radiation exposure to the retina
To allow the UV-A lamp to reach full intensity output

Correct answer: To maximize eye sensitivity to low-level fluorescent light emitted by indications

Dark adaptation (at least 1 minute) increases the eye's sensitivity to faint fluorescent indications, reducing the chance of missing small discontinuities.

Question 41: A visual inspector is examining a large, highly polished stainless steel surface and is having difficulty with severe glare, which is obscuring potential fine cracks. Which of the following actions would be MOST effective in mitigating the glare?

Using a magnifying glass with a built-in light.
Changing the angle of the light source and/or the viewing angle. (Correct answer)
Increasing the intensity of the light source directly perpendicular to the surface.
Cleaning the surface again with a solvent.

Correct answer: Changing the angle of the light source and/or the viewing angle.

Glare, or specular reflection, occurs when light reflects directly off a smooth surface into the inspector's eyes. The most effective way to reduce this is to change the geometry of the lighting and viewing setup. By adjusting the angle of the light source or the angle from which the surface is viewed, the direct reflection can be directed away from the eyes, allowing for a clearer view of the surface. Increasing direct light would worsen the glare.

Question 42: For weld visual inspection, 'overlap' (also called cold lap) is best described as:

Excess weld reinforcement above the base metal surface
A crack running parallel to the weld axis
Base metal burned through by excessive heat input
Weld metal that protrudes beyond the joint without fusing to the base metal (Correct answer)

Correct answer: Weld metal that protrudes beyond the joint without fusing to the base metal

Overlap is an imperfection where weld metal flows beyond the toe of the weld and lies on the base metal surface without metallurgical fusion.

Question 43: What is the annual whole-body occupational dose limit for radiation workers in the US?

100 mSv (10 rem)
5 mSv (500 mrem)
1 mSv (100 mrem)
50 mSv (5 rem) (Correct answer)

Correct answer: 50 mSv (5 rem)

The NRC limits occupational whole-body dose to 50 mSv (5 rem) per year under 10 CFR Part 20.

Question 44: In the context of eddy current testing, what does 'fill factor' describe for encircling coil probes?

The ratio of the test piece cross-sectional area to the coil's inside area (Correct answer)
The percentage of the coil wound with conducting wire
The fraction of the coil length occupied by the test piece
The ratio of eddy current density at the surface to the interior

Correct answer: The ratio of the test piece cross-sectional area to the coil's inside area

Fill factor (η) is the ratio of the test piece's cross-sectional area to the coil's inner cross-sectional area, and a higher fill factor improves coupling and sensitivity.

Question 45: Which regulatory body in the US sets occupational radiation dose limits for NDT workers?

EPA
NRC (Nuclear Regulatory Commission) (Correct answer)
OSHA
ASNT

Correct answer: NRC (Nuclear Regulatory Commission)

The NRC sets occupational radiation dose limits under 10 CFR Part 20, which governs the use of radioactive materials in industry.

Question 46: The 'controlled area' boundary during a radiographic exposure is typically established where the dose rate does not exceed:

0.02 mSv/hr (2 mrem/hr)
0.005 mSv/hr (0.5 mrem/hr)
2 mSv/hr (200 mrem/hr) (Correct answer)
5 mSv/hr (500 mrem/hr)

Correct answer: 2 mSv/hr (200 mrem/hr)

In practice, the controlled (restricted) area boundary is placed where dose rates reach or exceed 2 mSv/hr (200 mrem/hr), limiting access to radiation workers.

Question 47: A technician is inspecting an austenitic stainless steel weld. Which penetrant specification controls sulfur and halogen content to prevent material damage?

AMS 2644 (Correct answer)
ASTM E165
ASTM E1417
ASME Section V Article 6

Correct answer: AMS 2644

AMS 2644 specifies limits on sulfur and halogen content in penetrant materials used on nickel alloys and austenitic stainless steels to prevent stress corrosion cracking.

Question 48: Which of the following is a key safety advantage of using an X-ray generator compared to a gamma-ray source for industrial radiography?

X-ray equipment is always more portable and requires no power source.
X-ray sources provide better penetration for very thick steel sections.
Gamma-ray sources decay over time, making them less predictable.
The radiation from an X-ray tube can be turned off completely. (Correct answer)

Correct answer: The radiation from an X-ray tube can be turned off completely.

A primary safety advantage of X-ray systems is that they only produce radiation when electrically powered on. In contrast, a gamma-ray source, like Iridium-192 or Cobalt-60, emits radiation continuously and cannot be turned off, posing a constant potential hazard that requires secure shielding at all times.

Question 49: What is the significance of the 'leak rate' unit 'Pa·m³/s' (or atm·cc/s) in leak testing?

It quantifies the volumetric flow of gas through a leak at a given pressure differential (Correct answer)
It measures the cross-sectional area of a leak
It describes the velocity of gas through a leak path
It indicates the chemical composition of escaping gas

Correct answer: It quantifies the volumetric flow of gas through a leak at a given pressure differential

Leak rate units like Pa·m³/s express the volume of gas passing through a leak per unit time at a specified pressure, quantifying how much gas is lost.

Question 50: During visual inspection of a pressure vessel, an inspector finds a 'blister' on the inner surface. This most likely indicates:

Hydrogen-induced blistering from wet H₂S service (Correct answer)
Coating delamination from heat
Weld spatter accumulation
Normal surface roughness from rolling

Correct answer: Hydrogen-induced blistering from wet H₂S service

Blisters on internal pressure vessel surfaces in sour service are classic indicators of hydrogen-induced cracking (HIC) where hydrogen diffuses into the steel.

ASNT NDT Level II General

The ASNT NDT Level II General examination certifies competency in nondestructive testing fundamentals, principles, and theory across multiple NDT methods including ultrasonic, radiographic, magnetic particle, liquid penetrant, visual, and eddy current testing.

Questions

120 min

Time Limit

70%

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