NCS Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield NCS facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. Autonomic dysreflexia (AD) most commonly occurs in individuals with spinal cord injuries at or above which neurological level? → T6
2. According to the MGTX randomized trial, thymectomy in generalized AChR antibody-positive myasthenia gravis patients provides: → Improved clinical status and significant reduction in prednisone requirements over 3 years
3. Which cerebellar lobe is most associated with vestibulocerebellar functions, including balance and eye movement control? → Flocculonodular lobe
4. A patient with a complete T10 spinal cord injury would be expected to retain which function? → Diaphragmatic breathing
5. Habituation exercises for vestibular dysfunction are MOST appropriate for patients with: → Chronic motion sensitivity from stable unilateral vestibular hypofunction
6. Spinal shock following acute SCI is best characterized by: → Transient areflexia, flaccidity, and loss of autonomic function below the injury
7. A patient on long-term opioids requires escalating doses for the same pain relief. Which pharmacological process best describes this? → Pharmacodynamic tolerance
8. Which neurotransmitter imbalance is primarily implicated in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia? → Excessive dopamine
9. Which outcome measure is specifically designed to assess balance confidence in older adults with neurological conditions, using a 16-item scale? → Activities-specific Balance Confidence (ABC) Scale
10. Post-TBI fatigue differs from depression-related fatigue primarily in that post-TBI fatigue: → Is worsened specifically by cognitive and physical exertion and improved by rest
11. What are the major divisions of the nervous system? → Central nervous system (brain and spinal cord) and peripheral nervous system
12. Which outcome measure is most appropriate for tracking functional independence in moderate-to-severe TBI during inpatient rehabilitation? → Functional Independence Measure (FIM)
13. What is the resting membrane potential of a typical mammalian neuron, and which ion is primarily responsible for setting it? → -70 mV, primarily determined by K⁺ equilibrium and leak conductance
14. The most appropriate initial management for orthostatic hypotension in a patient with T4 complete paraplegia during early rehabilitation is: → Abdominal binder and compression stockings with gradual head-of-bed elevation
15. Post-stroke dysphagia is MOST commonly associated with damage to which neural structures? → Bilateral cortical lesions or unilateral brainstem lesion
16. Neuroplasticity following stroke or CNS injury is best described as which process at the cellular level? → Synaptic reorganization, axonal sprouting, and unmasking of latent connections
17. In spinal muscular atrophy (SMA), SMN1 gene deletion leads to: → Progressive degeneration of alpha motor neurons in the anterior horn of the spinal cord
18. What is transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)? → A non-invasive pain management technique using electrical currents through skin electrodes
19. What is gait analysis? → Systematic study of human walking patterns to identify abnormalities and guide treatment
20. Inspiratory muscle training (IMT) using a threshold loading device is MOST indicated for which neurological patient population? → Patients with cervical SCI (C3–C8) who have decreased inspiratory muscle force
21. Which ascending tract conveys proprioception from the lower limb directly to the ipsilateral cerebellum without relay in the thalamus? → Posterior spinocerebellar tract
22. What is neuropathic pain? → Pain caused by damage to or dysfunction of the nervous system itself
23. When assessing the H-reflex in clinical practice, which muscle-nerve pair is most commonly tested? → Soleus via tibial nerve
24. Body-weight supported treadmill training (BWSTT) is most appropriate for which post-stroke patient profile? → Partial weight-bearing capacity but insufficient strength for unsupported overground gait
25. During gait analysis of a patient with foot drop from peroneal nerve palsy, which compensatory strategy is MOST commonly observed? → Hip hiking and circumduction
26. Pregabalin's analgesic mechanism in neuropathic pain involves binding to which target? → α2δ subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels
27. The 'gate control theory' of pain proposes that pain transmission is modulated at the level of the: → Spinal cord dorsal horn
28. The 'timed up and go' (TUG) test is MOST useful for measuring which outcome in stroke survivors? → Functional mobility and fall risk
29. Stiff Person Syndrome (SPS) is most commonly associated with which autoantibody? → Anti-GAD65 antibody targeting glutamic acid decarboxylase
30. What are common motor deficits after stroke? → Hemiparesis or hemiplegia, spasticity, impaired coordination, and balance deficits