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Practice Test Flashcards

16 cards from real NCLEX practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

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  1. The nurse is caring for a neonate whose mother is diabetic. The nurse will expect the neonate to be:

    Answer: Hypoglycemic, large for gestational age

    Infants born to diabetic mothers are at risk for hypoglycemia because their pancreases have been accustomed to producing high levels of insulin in response to the mother's elevated glucose. After birth, when the maternal glucose supply is cut off, the neonate's continued high insulin production causes a rapid drop in blood glucose. Additionally, the excess glucose received in utero often leads to macrosomia, resulting in a baby that is large for gestational age.

  2. Which nurse should be assigned to care for the postpartum client with preeclampsia?

    Answer: The RN with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery

    Preeclampsia is a serious condition requiring specialized care and close monitoring for potential complications. An RN with 3 years of experience in labor and delivery would possess the most relevant and comprehensive knowledge and skills to manage a postpartum client with preeclampsia. This experience ensures they are adept at monitoring for signs of deterioration, managing potential obstetric emergencies, and providing appropriate interventions for this high-risk condition.

  3. The nurse caring for a client in the neonatal intensive care unit administers adult-strength Digitalis to the 3-pound infant. As a result of her actions, the baby suffers permanent heart and brain damage. The nurse can be charged with:

    Answer: Malpractice

    Malpractice is a specific type of professional negligence that occurs when a healthcare professional deviates from the accepted standards of practice, resulting in injury or harm to a patient. Administering an adult-strength medication to a neonate, leading to permanent damage, clearly constitutes a breach of the professional standard of care. This action demonstrates a failure to act with the prudence and skill expected of a reasonable and competent nurse, directly causing harm.

  4. A vaginal exam reveals that the cervix is 4cm dilated, with intact membranes and a fetal heart tone rate of 160–170 bpm. The nurse decides to apply an external fetal monitor. The rationale for this implementation is:

    Answer: The membranes are still intact.

    An external fetal monitor is applied when the membranes are intact because it is a non-invasive method that does not require the rupture of membranes. Internal fetal monitoring, such as an internal scalp electrode or intrauterine pressure catheter, can only be used after the membranes have ruptured. Therefore, the intact membranes necessitate the use of an external monitor to safely assess fetal heart tones and uterine contractions.

  5. A client with bacterial pneumonia is admitted to the pediatric unit. What would the nurse expect the admitting assessment to reveal?

    Answer: High fever

    Bacterial pneumonia in children typically presents with a sudden onset of symptoms, with a high fever being a hallmark sign indicating a significant infection. While other symptoms like rhinitis or vomiting/diarrhea can occur, and a nonproductive cough is more common in viral pneumonia, a high fever is a classic and expected finding in bacterial pneumonia. This distinguishes it from less severe or viral respiratory illnesses.

  6. The client is admitted to the unit. A vaginal exam reveals that she is 2cm dilated. Which of the following statements would the nurse expect her to make?

    Answer: “When can I get my epidural?”

    A client who is 2 cm dilated is in the early latent phase of labor. During this phase, contractions are typically mild to moderate, and the client is often still comfortable enough to engage in conversation and express preferences for pain management. Requesting an epidural is a common question during early labor as clients anticipate increasing pain and consider their options for comfort. The other statements are more indicative of later, more intense stages of labor.

  7. A 25-year-old client with Grave’s disease is admitted to the unit. What would the nurse expect the admitting assessment to reveal?

    Answer: Exophthalmos

    Grave's disease is an autoimmune disorder causing hyperthyroidism, characterized by an overactive thyroid gland. Exophthalmos, or bulging eyes, is a classic and distinctive sign of Grave's ophthalmopathy, a specific manifestation of the disease caused by inflammation and swelling of tissues behind the eyes. Other common symptoms include tachycardia, weight loss despite increased appetite, and heat intolerance, not bradycardia or weight gain.

  8. The nurse is discussing breastfeeding with a postpartum client. Breastfeeding is contraindicated in the postpartum client with:

    Answer: Positive HIV

    Breastfeeding is contraindicated in mothers who are HIV positive because the virus can be transmitted to the infant through breast milk. The risk of HIV transmission outweighs the benefits of breastfeeding in this specific situation, making it an unsafe practice. Conditions like diabetes, hypertension, and thyroid disease are generally not contraindications for breastfeeding, though they may require careful management.

  9. The nurse is teaching a group of prenatal clients about the effects of cigarette smoke on fetal development. Which characteristic is associated with babies born to mothers who smoked during pregnancy?

    Answer: Low birth weight

    Maternal smoking during pregnancy is a well-established risk factor for various adverse fetal outcomes, with low birth weight being one of the most consistently observed characteristics. Nicotine and other toxins in cigarette smoke cause vasoconstriction, reducing blood flow and oxygen delivery to the fetus, which impairs growth and development. This often results in babies who are smaller than expected for their gestational age.

  10. He asserts the importance of promoting a positive organizational culture in their unit. Which of the following behaviors indicate that this is attained by the group?

    Answer: Proactive and caring with one another

    A positive organizational culture is characterized by behaviors that foster collaboration, mutual support, and a shared commitment to well-being and improvement. Being proactive indicates initiative, problem-solving, and a forward-thinking approach, while being caring reflects empathy, support, and concern for colleagues. These behaviors collectively create a healthy, productive, and supportive work environment, unlike competitive or merely obedient attitudes.

  11. Stephanie is a new Staff Educator of a private tertiary hospital. She conducts orientation among new staff nurses in her department. Joseph, one of the new staff nurses, wants to understand the channel of communication, span of control and lines of communication. Which of the following will provide this information?

    Answer: Organizational structure

    An organizational structure, typically depicted in an organizational chart, visually represents the hierarchy, reporting relationships, and lines of authority and communication within an organization. It clearly illustrates the chain of command, span of control (how many people report to a manager), and how different departments or roles interact. Policies, job descriptions, and procedure manuals provide detailed rules and tasks, but not the overall structural framework.

  12. Stephanie is often seen interacting with the medical intern during coffee breaks and after duty hours. What type of organizational structure is this?

    Answer: Informal

    The informal organizational structure refers to the unofficial relationships, communication networks, and social interactions that develop spontaneously among employees, often outside the formal chain of command. Stephanie interacting with a medical intern during coffee breaks and after duty hours exemplifies these unofficial social connections. These interactions are distinct from the formal reporting lines and established hierarchy.

  13. She takes pride in saying that the hospital has a decentralized structure. Which of the following is NOT compatible with this type of model?

    Answer: Tall organization

    A decentralized structure is characterized by distributed decision-making and fewer hierarchical layers, often leading to a 'flat' organization. It aligns with participatory approaches and shared governance, where employees have more input and autonomy. A 'tall' organization, conversely, has many layers of management and a narrow span of control, which is typical of a centralized, hierarchical structure and therefore incompatible with a decentralized model.

  14. Centralized organizations have some advantages. Which of the following statements are TRUE? 1. Highly cost-effective 2. Makes management easier 3. Reflects the interest of the worker 4. Allows quick decisions or actions.

    Answer: 1 & 2

    Centralized organizations concentrate decision-making power at the top, which can lead to greater control over activities and potentially more cost-effective operations due to standardized processes and reduced duplication. This structure also makes management easier by having clear lines of authority and decision-making. However, it often does not reflect the interests of individual workers as much as a decentralized system, and decision-making can be slower due to multiple approval layers.

  15. Stephanie delegates effectively if she has authority to act, which is BEST defined as:

    Answer: having legitimate right to act

    Authority, in a management context, is the legitimate right to make decisions, give orders, and allocate resources. It is derived from one's position within the organizational hierarchy and is essential for effective delegation. While responsibility and accountability are related concepts, authority specifically refers to the sanctioned power or legal right to act and direct others.

  16. Regardless of the size of a work group, enough staff must be available at all times to accomplish certain purposes. Which of these purposes is NOT included?

    Answer: Provide a pair of hands to other units as needed

    The primary purposes of adequate staffing in a work group are to meet the specific needs of patients within that unit, ensure comprehensive coverage across all shifts and time periods, and allow for the professional growth and development of the nursing staff. While staff may occasionally assist other units, providing a 'pair of hands to other units as needed' is not a primary purpose of staffing *within a specific work group* itself, but rather a potential outcome of staffing flexibility or a separate resource allocation strategy.