Practice Test Geeks(NCCPA) National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants Practice Test
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Internal Medicine Flashcards

7 cards from real NCCPA practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Internal Medicine flashcards as text

  1. A 55-year-old man presents with hemoptysis, weight loss, and a cavitary lung lesion. He is an immigrant from Southeast Asia. Which organism is most likely?

    Answer: Mycobacterium tuberculosis

    Cavitary upper-lobe infiltrate with hemoptysis and systemic symptoms in an immigrant population is classic for pulmonary tuberculosis.

  2. A 40-year-old woman with SLE develops pleuritis and a positive anti-dsDNA with low complement. Which complication most directly correlates with anti-dsDNA titers?

    Answer: Lupus nephritis

    Anti-dsDNA titers and low complement (C3/C4) are strongly correlated with lupus nephritis disease activity.

  3. A 68-year-old man with atrial fibrillation has a CHADS2-VASc score of 4. Which anticoagulation strategy is most appropriate?

    Answer: Direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)

    A CHA2DS2-VASc score ≥2 in men warrants oral anticoagulation, with DOACs preferred over warfarin for non-valvular AF.

  4. A patient presents with ascending muscle weakness after a Campylobacter infection 3 weeks ago. CSF shows albuminocytologic dissociation. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

    Post-infectious ascending flaccid paralysis with elevated CSF protein and normal cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) is pathognomonic for Guillain-Barré syndrome.

  5. A 52-year-old woman with cirrhosis develops confusion and asterixis after starting a high-protein diet. Ammonia is elevated. What is the best initial treatment?

    Answer: Lactulose

    Lactulose acidifies the colon, trapping ammonia as ammonium and reducing its absorption, and is first-line for hepatic encephalopathy.

  6. A 30-year-old woman presents with episodic hypertension, headache, diaphoresis, and palpitations. Urine metanephrines are elevated. Which is the next best step?

    Answer: Adrenal CT or MRI imaging

    Once biochemical confirmation of pheochromocytoma is established, cross-sectional imaging of the adrenals is performed to localize the tumor.

  7. A 65-year-old man with a history of smoking presents with FEV1/FVC ratio of 0.65 and FEV1 45% predicted that does not significantly improve with bronchodilators. What is the GOLD classification?

    Answer: GOLD 3 (severe)

    GOLD 3 is defined by post-bronchodilator FEV1 30–50% predicted with FEV1/FVC <0.70.