Obstetrics and Gynecology Flashcards
7 cards from real NCCPA practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.
Read the first 7 Obstetrics and Gynecology flashcards as text
A 24-year-old woman with a history of chlamydia presents with right upper quadrant pain, fever, and cervical motion tenderness. Liver function tests are mildly elevated. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Fitz-Hugh–Curtis syndrome
Fitz-Hugh–Curtis syndrome is perihepatitis secondary to PID (most commonly Chlamydia trachomatis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae) that causes right upper quadrant pain and perihepatic adhesions alongside signs of pelvic infection.
A 30-year-old woman at 32 weeks gestation presents with painful uterine contractions every 5 minutes, back pain, and a small amount of vaginal bleeding. Cervical exam shows 2 cm dilation. She denies rupture of membranes. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological intervention?
Answer: Administer IV magnesium sulfate for neuroprotection and betamethasone for fetal lung maturity
At 32 weeks with preterm labor, both antenatal corticosteroids (betamethasone) to accelerate fetal lung maturity and magnesium sulfate for neonatal neuroprotection are indicated; tocolytics may provide time for these agents to act.
A 27-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation with chronic hypertension suddenly develops severe, continuous abdominal pain and a board-like rigid uterus. Fetal heart monitoring shows late decelerations. There is dark vaginal bleeding. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer: Placental abruption
Placental abruption classically presents with sudden painful vaginal bleeding, a rigid tender uterus, and fetal distress; it is associated with hypertension, trauma, and cocaine use.
A 36-year-old nulliparous woman desires long-term contraception. She has a history of migraines with aura and hypertension. Which contraceptive method is safest for her?
Answer: Levonorgestrel intrauterine device (LNG-IUD)
Estrogen-containing contraceptives are contraindicated (WHO Category 4) in women with migraines with aura due to increased stroke risk; a progestin-only LNG-IUD is safe and highly effective.
According to USPSTF guidelines, women with average risk should begin mammography breast cancer screening at what age?
Answer: 40 years
The 2024 USPSTF recommendation states that average-risk women should begin biennial mammography screening at age 40 to reduce breast cancer mortality.
A 31-year-old woman at 28 weeks gestation is found to have a fasting glucose of 96 mg/dL and a 1-hour 50-g glucose challenge test (GCT) result of 158 mg/dL. What is the next most appropriate step?
Answer: Perform a 3-hour 100-g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT)
A 1-hour GCT result ≥140 mg/dL is a positive screen that requires a diagnostic 3-hour 100-g OGTT; gestational diabetes is diagnosed if ≥2 of 4 values are elevated.
A 26-year-old Rh-negative woman at 28 weeks gestation has an Rh-positive partner and a negative antibody screen. Which of the following is the most appropriate management?
Answer: Administer Rh(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) 300 mcg IM now and again within 72 hours of delivery
Unsensitized Rh-negative pregnant women should receive Rh(D) immune globulin 300 mcg at 28 weeks gestation and again within 72 hours of delivery to prevent alloimmunization in current and future pregnancies.