Practice Test Geeks(NCCPA) National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants Practice Test
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Obstetrics and Gynecology Flashcards

7 cards from real NCCPA practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Obstetrics and Gynecology flashcards as text

  1. A 28-year-old woman at 10 weeks gestation presents with severe nausea, vomiting, and a uterus larger than expected for dates. Beta-hCG is markedly elevated and ultrasound shows a 'snowstorm' appearance. What is the most likely diagnosis?

    Answer: Complete hydatidiform mole

    A complete hydatidiform mole classically presents with markedly elevated beta-hCG, uterine size greater than dates, hyperemesis, and a 'snowstorm' pattern on ultrasound due to trophoblastic proliferation.

  2. A 25-year-old woman at 8 weeks gestation presents with sharp left lower quadrant pain and vaginal spotting. Her beta-hCG is 2,400 mIU/mL and transvaginal ultrasound shows no intrauterine gestational sac. What is the next best step?

    Answer: Repeat beta-hCG in 48 hours

    With a beta-hCG below the discriminatory zone (~1,500–2,000 mIU/mL) and no IUP visualized, the appropriate next step is to repeat beta-hCG in 48 hours to determine if it rises appropriately or plateaus/declines, guiding management of possible ectopic or early IUP.

  3. A 32-year-old G2P1 at 36 weeks gestation presents with sudden painless bright red vaginal bleeding. Vital signs are stable and fetal heart tones are reassuring. What is the most important initial step?

    Answer: Obtain transabdominal ultrasound

    Painless third-trimester bleeding is placenta previa until proven otherwise; transabdominal ultrasound should be obtained first to locate the placenta before any digital exam, which is contraindicated if previa is suspected.

  4. At what gestational age is Group B Streptococcus (GBS) screening routinely performed?

    Answer: 35–37 weeks

    ACOG recommends universal GBS screening with a vaginal-rectal swab at 35–37 weeks gestation to guide intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis.

  5. A 30-year-old primigravida at 39 weeks has been in active labor for 14 hours. She is 6 cm dilated with ruptured membranes. Contractions are every 4–5 minutes. What is the most appropriate diagnosis?

    Answer: Secondary arrest of dilation

    Secondary (active phase) arrest of dilation is defined as no cervical change for ≥4 hours despite adequate uterine contractions after reaching 6 cm, which warrants consideration of augmentation or operative delivery.

  6. A 26-year-old woman develops heavy vaginal bleeding within 1 hour of an uncomplicated vaginal delivery. The uterus is soft and 'boggy' on palpation. What is the first-line management?

    Answer: Perform bimanual uterine compression and oxytocin infusion

    Uterine atony is the most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage; immediate bimanual uterine massage and IV oxytocin are the first-line interventions to stimulate uterine contraction.

  7. Which lab finding is most consistent with HELLP syndrome?

    Answer: Hemolytic anemia, elevated liver enzymes, low platelets

    HELLP syndrome is defined by Hemolysis (microangiopathic hemolytic anemia), Elevated Liver enzymes (AST/ALT), and Low Platelets (<100,000/µL), representing a severe variant of preeclampsia.