Practice Test Geeks(NCCPA) National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants Practice Test
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Diagnostic Studies Flashcards

7 cards from real NCCPA practice questions. Tap to flip, then mark Knew It or Still Learning — missed cards come back until you master them.

Read the first 7 Diagnostic Studies flashcards as text

  1. A patient presents with polyuria and polydipsia. After water deprivation, urine osmolality remains low but rises markedly after vasopressin administration. What is the diagnosis?

    Answer: Central diabetes insipidus

    Response to exogenous vasopressin indicates the kidney can concentrate urine but lacks ADH, consistent with central diabetes insipidus.

  2. Which finding on peripheral blood smear is most characteristic of hemolytic anemia?

    Answer: Schistocytes and spherocytes

    Schistocytes (fragmented RBCs) and spherocytes result from RBC destruction and are hallmarks of hemolytic anemia on smear.

  3. A 55-year-old smoker has a lung nodule on CT measuring 8 mm. According to Fleischner Society guidelines, what is recommended for a high-risk patient?

    Answer: CT at 3-6 months then annually

    For high-risk patients with nodules 6-8 mm, Fleischner guidelines recommend CT at 3-6 months with annual follow-up for 2 years.

  4. A 28-year-old woman has amenorrhea, elevated prolactin of 120 ng/mL, and low FSH/LH. Which imaging study is indicated?

    Answer: MRI pituitary with gadolinium

    MRI of the pituitary with gadolinium is the best study to evaluate for a prolactinoma as the cause of hyperprolactinemia.

  5. A patient's ABG shows pH 7.28, PaCO2 52 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. What is the primary acid-base disorder?

    Answer: Respiratory acidosis

    Elevated PaCO2 with acidic pH and normal bicarbonate indicates acute respiratory acidosis without metabolic compensation.

  6. Colonoscopy reveals a 1.5 cm sessile polyp removed by snare polypectomy. Pathology shows a tubulovillous adenoma. When should surveillance colonoscopy be performed?

    Answer: 3 years

    Tubulovillous adenomas ≥1 cm are high-risk adenomas warranting repeat colonoscopy in 3 years per current guidelines.

  7. A 70-year-old male has an INR of 5.8 on warfarin without active bleeding. What is the most appropriate management?

    Answer: Hold warfarin and give vitamin K 2.5 mg orally

    For supratherapeutic INR (4-10) without bleeding, holding warfarin and giving low-dose oral vitamin K is appropriate per ACCP guidelines.