NBRC Cheat Sheet 2026

The 30 highest-yield NBRC facts, distilled from real exam questions. Print it, save it as a PDF, or study it here — free, no sign-up.

1. An older female patient visits the doctor due to sleep issues. What could be the reason behind her sleep? → Older age decreases the amount of REM sleep naturally
2. A patient with ARDS has a PaO2 of 55 mmHg on FiO2 of 0.8 and PEEP of 12 cmH2O. The P/F ratio is: → 69
3. The maximum voluntary ventilation (MVV) test measures: → The maximum volume breathed in and out over 12–15 seconds, extrapolated to one minute
4. Which spirometric pattern is typically seen in a patient with severe scoliosis? → Restrictive pattern
5. The DLCO (diffusing capacity for carbon monoxide) is reduced in which condition? → Emphysema
6. Which parameter is used to calculate static compliance on a mechanically ventilated patient? → Plateau pressure minus PEEP divided by tidal volume
7. The lung-protective ventilation strategy for ARDS recommends tidal volumes of: → 6 mL/kg ideal body weight
8. The functional residual capacity (FRC) is the sum of which two lung volumes? → Expiratory reserve volume and residual volume
9. Nitrogen washout and helium dilution are techniques used to measure: → Functional residual capacity (FRC)
10. Rapid sequence intubation (RSI) uses a sedative agent followed immediately by a neuromuscular blocking agent to: → Minimize time to intubation and reduce aspiration risk
11. Which airway device is considered a supraglottic (extraglottic) airway? → Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)
12. What is the Bohr effect? → Increased CO2 shifts the oxyhemoglobin curve right
13. Permissive hypercapnia in ARDS management allows PaCO2 to rise to reduce: → Barotrauma and volutrauma from aggressive ventilation
14. The normal mixed venous oxygen saturation (SvO2) is approximately: → 60–75%
15. Which ventilator mode delivers a set tidal volume regardless of airway resistance or compliance changes? → Volume control ventilation (VCV)
16. A patient with status asthmaticus is receiving continuous albuterol nebulization. Which adverse effect must be monitored most closely? → Hypokalemia
17. The rapid shallow breathing index (RSBI) predicts weaning success. A favorable RSBI is: → Less than 105 breaths/min/L
18. A respiratory therapist administers a metered-dose inhaler with a spacer device. What is the primary advantage of using a spacer? → Reduces oropharyngeal deposition and improves lung delivery
19. Which chemoreceptors respond most rapidly to changes in PaCO2? → Central chemoreceptors in the medulla
20. During methacholine challenge testing, a positive result (PC20) is defined as a ≥20% fall in FEV1 at a concentration of methacholine at or below: → 8 mg/mL
21. The target PaCO2 during CPR for an adult patient is: → 35–45 mmHg
22. Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) most commonly causes which lower respiratory illness in infants? → Bronchiolitis
23. Which alarm condition most urgently requires immediate assessment and intervention? → Apnea alarm with absent patient effort
24. In listening to a patient's lungs, you notice bronchial breath sounds in her right lower lobe. These would indicate which of the following? → Consolidation in her right lower lobe
25. Which waveform is characteristic of volume-controlled, constant-flow ventilation? → Square (constant) flow waveform
26. Which route of delivery provides the highest systemic absorption for a bronchodilator but also carries the greatest risk of systemic side effects? → Intravenous infusion
27. Montelukast (Singulair) belongs to which drug class used in asthma management? → Leukotriene receptor antagonist
28. The peak expiratory flow (PEF) is most effort-dependent and primarily reflects: → Large central airway caliber and effort
29. Closed-suction catheter systems are preferred in mechanically ventilated patients primarily to: → Maintain PEEP and prevent circuit contamination during suctioning
30. The primary treatment for neonatal RDS is: → Exogenous surfactant replacement therapy