NAVLE General Practice 3 — Questions and Answers
Question 1: A 7-year-old spayed female cat presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and a palpable ventral neck mass. T4 is markedly elevated. Which treatment option is considered curative?
- Radioactive iodine (I-131) therapy (Correct answer)
- Methimazole administered daily
- Thyroidectomy only when bilateral
- Dietary iodine restriction
Correct answer: Radioactive iodine (I-131) therapy
Radioactive iodine (I-131) is the treatment of choice for feline hyperthyroidism as it selectively destroys hyperfunctional thyroid tissue and is considered curative with a single dose.
Question 2: A 2-year-old intact male dog presents with acute scrotal swelling, fever, and pain. Orchitis is suspected. What is the most appropriate initial management?
- Castration and broad-spectrum antibiotics (Correct answer)
- Antibiotics alone and recheck in 2 weeks
- Cold hydrotherapy and NSAIDs only
- Aspiration of the testis for culture
Correct answer: Castration and broad-spectrum antibiotics
Castration combined with broad-spectrum antibiotics is recommended for bacterial orchitis to eliminate the infection source, prevent abscess formation, and avoid systemic sepsis.
Question 3: A horse presents with acute colic, nasogastric reflux >2 L, absent borborygmi on the right side, and tachycardia of 68 bpm. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- Large colon displacement to the right (right dorsal displacement)
- Simple large colon impaction
- Cecal impaction
- Duodenitis-proximal jejunitis (Correct answer)
Correct answer: Duodenitis-proximal jejunitis
Large volumes of nasogastric reflux (>2 L) combined with absent right-sided borborygmi, severe tachycardia, and acute pain are classic for duodenitis-proximal jejunitis (anterior enteritis).
Question 4: A rabbit presents with acute respiratory distress, cyanosis, and sudden death of several cage-mates over 24 hours. Necropsy reveals multifocal hepatic necrosis and pulmonary hemorrhage. The most likely etiologic agent is:
- Rabbit hemorrhagic disease virus (RHDV) (Correct answer)
- Pasteurella multocida
- Encephalitozoon cuniculi
- Myxoma virus
Correct answer: Rabbit hemorrhagic disease virus (RHDV)
Rabbit hemorrhagic disease virus causes peracute mortality with hepatic necrosis, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and pulmonary hemorrhage, often affecting multiple animals rapidly.
Question 5: A 10-year-old dog is diagnosed with stage 3 chronic kidney disease (IRIS). Which dietary modification is most appropriate?
- Phosphorus restriction with moderate protein reduction (Correct answer)
- High protein diet to offset catabolism
- Sodium restriction only
- Increased calcium supplementation
Correct answer: Phosphorus restriction with moderate protein reduction
Phosphorus restriction slows CKD progression by reducing renal secondary hyperparathyroidism, and moderate protein reduction decreases uremic toxin accumulation without worsening malnutrition.
Question 6: A 6-month-old intact male puppy presents with bilateral cryptorchidism confirmed on exam. What is the recommended course of action?
- Castration including removal of both undescended testes (Correct answer)
- Wait until 18 months and recheck
- Testosterone supplementation to encourage descent
- Removal of scrotal testes only
Correct answer: Castration including removal of both undescended testes
Both retained and scrotal testes must be removed because cryptorchid testes carry a significantly higher risk of Sertoli cell tumor and seminoma, and the condition is heritable.
Question 7: A cow at 60 days postpartum has been anestrus. Body condition score is 2/5. Progesterone profiles confirm ovarian inactivity. The primary cause is most likely:
- Negative energy balance suppressing the hypothalamic-pituitary axis (Correct answer)
- Subclinical mastitis causing hormonal disruption
- Persistent corpus luteum
- Ovarian cyst formation
Correct answer: Negative energy balance suppressing the hypothalamic-pituitary axis
Postpartum anestrus in cattle is most commonly caused by negative energy balance, which suppresses GnRH pulsatility and LH release, preventing follicular maturation and ovulation.
NAVLE General Practice 3
A 7-year-old spayed female cat presents with polyuria, polydipsia, and a palpable ventral neck mass.
T4 is markedly elevated.
Which treatment option is considered curative?